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Columbus State University BIOL 2225K Week 7-Exam 3 (Ch

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Columbus State University

BIOL 2225K

Week 7-Exam 3 (Ch. 11-13)

1)The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are a           naked viruses.

b             vegetative bacteria and fungi. c endospores.

d             protozoan cysts.

e             mycobacteria and staphylococci.

 

2              Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?

a              Cells die at increasingly greater rates.

b             Only older cells die in a culture.

c              Cells in a culture die at a constant rate.

d             Upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time.

e             Cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed.

 

3              Some microbial control agents are able to            cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state, the three-dimensional configuration of the proteins.

a.            denature

b.            bind

c.             dissolve

d.            mutate

 

4              Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, and wine is optimally achieved by

a              pasteurization.

b             chlorination.

c              moist heat autoclave. d filtration.

e             boiling water.

 

5              Placing organisms at 4oC is

 a             bactericidal.

b             bacteriostatic.

c              decontamination.

d             sterilization.

e             germicidal.

 

6              Pasteurization

a              kills all vegetative forms.

b             reduces the number of vegetative forms. c         reduces the number of endospores.

d             increases food nutrient value.

e             is used to sterilize food products.

 

7                                             heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to               heat.

 a                             High; dry

 

b             High; moist

 c             Dry; moist

d             Moist; dry

e             Moist; high

 

8              Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to

a              desiccation.

b             ultraviolet light.

 c             ethyl alcohol.

d             hydrogen peroxide.

e             gamma rays and X rays.

 

9              Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacterium in a capped culture tube?

a              ultraviolet (germicidal) light

b             gamma rays

c              121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes

d             160°C for 2 hours

e             All of the choices are correct.

 

10           Filtration sterilization

a              can remove viruses.

b             relies on gravity.

c              removes toxins.

d             uses heat and filtration.

e             leaves behind endospores.

 

11           Which of the following is not a factor that affects germicidal activity? a   material being treated

b             length of exposure

c              strength of the germicide

d             microorganism being treated e  All of the choices are factors.

 

12           Which of the following is not true of chloramines?

 a             contain chlorine

b             can sanitize and disinfect

c              form trihalomethanes with organic compounds d             are safer than free chlorine

e             treat wounds and skin surfaces

 

13           The chemical agent/s that produce/s highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is

a              Cidex.

b             cationic detergents. c    hydrogen peroxide. d chlorhexidine.

e   iodophors.

 

 

14           Endospores can be inactivated by

a   dry heat at 170° C for 2 hours. b incineration.

c   glutaraldehyde for 3 or more hours. d   ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours.

 e All of the choices are correct.

 

15           Ethylene oxide is

a              sporicidal.

b             only effective with high heat.

c              the active agent in household bleach.

d             used as an antiseptic against anaerobes. e           a halogen.

 

16           Which of the following represents the use of osmotic pressure as a microbial control method? a                bleaching a kitchen counter

b             salting of meat

c              rinsing of a cut with Betadine

d             exposing dental equipment to UV light

 

17           Your little girl is in the ICU ward of a hospital, and you would like to take her favorite little cloth doll to her. However, it must be sterilized. Your choices of sterilization are ethylene oxide gas, ultraviolet radiation, or an iodophor containing solution. Which of the following is an accurate evaluation of these choices?

a              Betadine is not feasible as a choice since most iodophore solutions do not sterilize.

b             Ethylene oxide gas is a great sterilant, and there is no toxicity associated with it.

c              Ultraviolet radiation is a good choice for complete sterilization because it is cheap.

d             All of these choices are equally good as sterilizing agents and will not harm the doll.

 

18           Which antimicrobial method does not sterilize?

a              autoclave

b             ethylene oxide gas

c              pasteurization

d             ionizing radiation

 

19           Your friend Joe recently visited the doctor for steroid injections into his knee to reduce swelling due to previous knee injury. Within a couple of days, he had an infection caused by Pseudomonas, a very pathogenic and drug resistant bacterium. Luckily, Joe went to the doctor immediately and received antibiotics. The doctor tells him that problem has occurred to many other people across the U.S. Predict the most likely cause of this situation:

a              The staff giving the steroid injections did not use proper aseptic technique.

b             The steroid was contaminated at the production plant, so all batches of that drug made at that plant were contaminated with the bacterium.

c              The bacterium is normally on the skin of people, so can easily access the patient's blood

during the needle stick.

d             The needles were re-used and already contaminated before being used on the patients.

 

 

20           Agents that can denature microbial proteins include all of the following except a               moist heat.

b             alcohol.

c              acids.

d             metallic ions.

e             X rays.

 

21           The lowest temperature needed to kill or inactivate all microbes in 10 minutes is the

a              thermal death point (TDP).

b             thermal death time (TDT).

c              sporicidal time.

d             death phase point.

 

22           Intermittent sterilization, which uses 3 days of lower temperature steam for short periods of time, is also called

a              pasteurization.

b             incubation.

c              tyndallization.

d             disinfection.

e             desiccation.

 

23           HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from

 a             air.

b             liquids.

c              human tissues.

d             medical instruments.

e             All of the choices are correct.

 

24           All of the following are phenols or phenolics except a     Lysol.

b             hexachlorophene. c        triclosan.

d             cresols.

e             Zephiran.

 

25           All of the following act as surfactants except a    detergents.

b             soaps.

c              quaternary ammonia. d alcohols.

e             iodine.

 

26           Heavy metals work by

a              rupturing the cell membrane. b inactivating proteins.

c              binding to DNA.

d             dissolving the cell wall.

 

e             mutating DNA.

 

27           Which of the following acids is not used to destroy or inhibit microbial cells in food? a     acetic acid

b             benzoic acid c    lactic acid

d             phosphoric acid e             propionic acid

 

28           Each of the following results in drug resistance except a drug a  being pumped out of the cell.

b             being used as a nutrient by the cell. c     binding site being altered.

d             being inactivated.

e             being blocked from entering the cell.

 

29           A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobials in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?

a              Kirby-Bauer technique b               antibiogram

c              E-test

d             minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) test e  therapeutic index (TI)

 

30           A drug exhibiting which therapeutic index value would be the safest, most effective to use on a patient?

a              20

b             10

c              1

d             0.1

e             Any choice would be equally effective.

 

31           The patient has a staphylococcal infection of the blood, a septicemia--very serious and possibly deadly. As the doctor, you would like to prescribe a relatively non-toxic and inexpensive drug out of the cephalosporin family. However, if the patient harbors a strain of Staphylococcus that is resistant to a variety of antibiotics, you would prefer to use vancomycin-- which is highly effective against Staphylococcus. Which of the following explains why the cephalosporin drug is preferred for use over the vancomycin?

a              You would rather give an inexpensive drug to save the family money.

b             You really do not know that much about vancomycin, so you would rather go with a drug that you can find out more about.

c              Vancomycin is very toxic, and the Staphylococcus strain could become resistant leaving no back-up drugs with which to treat the infection.

d             Vancomycin is one of the most selectively toxic drugs there is, so you would prefer one

that has a more broad-spectrum effect.

 

32           You have given a dosage of an antibiotic to a patient for his infection, but the patient is not getting any better. The MIC tests shows that the drug that you prescribed, at the dosage that was given, should work against this particular strain of bacterium. What do you think might be the problem?

a              The drug might be broken down in the patient's body before it can have its full effect on the bacterium.

b             The patient is resistant to the drug.

c              The bacterium is immune to the chemical effects of the drug.

d             The drug was improperly made at the pharmaceutical company, so is no longer effective.

 

33           Your patient has been on antibiotics for 6 weeks after a case of streptococcal endocarditis, an infection of the inner heart wall. The infection clears up. However, the patient just visited you about a urinary tract infection, and the lab verified that the culprit was E. coli. What do you hypothesize happened in this situation?

a              The lab has made a mistake in identifying the cause, and, in fact, the UTI was caused by the original Streptococcus.

b             The lab has made a mistake in identifying the cause, and, in fact, the endocarditis was

caused by the E. coli.

c              Her normal microbiota in the genitourinary tract were killed, allowing E. coli (not killed by the antibiotics) to establish an infection.

d             The antibiotics damaged her immune system, making her very susceptible to

environmental bacteria.

 

34           Over 50 percent of all sales of medically important antibiotics in the United States are for livestock use. Why is this problematic for humans?

a              The livestock will become resistant to the antibiotics and not respond to treatment when they have infections.

b             Resistant bacteria grow in the animals and may then be passed to humans.

c              The use of antibiotics for livestock means that there are not enough for use in the human population.

d             The animals may become sick from the antibiotic ingestion.

 

35           The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called a           competitive inhibition.

b             synergism. c       prebiotics. d       prophylaxis. e    lantibiotics.

 

36           Each of the following affect cell walls except a    penicillin.

b             cycloserine. c     vancomycin.

d             erythromycin. e                cephalosporin.

 

37           Which of the following antimicrobials does not inhibit DNA synthesis?

 

a              chloroquine b    quinolone

c              penicillin

d             azidothymidine e             acyclovir

 

38           Sulfa drugs work on

a              nucleic acid biosynthesis. b          ribosome biosynthesis.

c              peptidoglycan biosynthesis. d    folic acid biosynthesis.

 

39           What type of chemical will allow some bacteria to be resistant to many penicillins? a       synercid

b             penicillinase c    aztreonam

d             clavulanic acid e                imipenem

 

40           Which drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis? a penicillin G

b   vancomycin c    tetracycline d synercid

e    isoniazid

 

41           The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold a   Penicillium notatum.

b             Penicilium chrysogenum. c          Penicilium familiaris.

d             Naturally produced penicillin is no longer used.

 

42           Which antimicrobial does not interfere with protein synthesis? a              aminoglycosides

b             tetracyclines c   erythromycin

d             trimethroprim

e             chloramphenicol

 

43           Which of the following antibacterial drug groups does not target protein synthesis? a     oxazolidinones

b             macrolides

c              aminoglycosides d           sulfonamides

e             tetracyclines

 

44           Which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA and VRE infections? a       synercid

 

b             clindamycin c     linezolid

d             azithromycin e  clarithromycin

 

45           The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is a         nystatin.

b             griseofulvin.

c              amphotericin B. d            sulfa drugs.

e             metronidazole.

 

46           The drug used for several protozoan infections is a          nystatin.

b             griseofulvin.

c              amphotericin B. d            sulfa drugs.

e             metronidazole.

 

47           Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of                infections. a       gram-positive bacterial

b             gram-negative bacterial c             fungal

d             protozoan e       viral

 

48           Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat infections caused by: a  influenza A virus.

b             HIV.

c              herpes zoster virus.

d             respiratory syncytial virus. e        hepatitis C virus.

 

49           Which of the following blocks HIV binding to host cell receptors? a           AZT

b             acyclovir

c              nevirapine

d             Fuzeon

e             amantidine

 

50           Which of the following is not a therapeutic benefit of interferon? a         reduces healing time

b             increases white blood cell count

c              prevents or reduces some cold symptoms d       slows progress of some cancers

e             treats hepatitis C

 

51           Microbial resistance resulting from mutation occurs because

 

a              prokaryotic genomes undergo mutation rapidly. b           prokaryotic genomes undergo mutation often.

c              short generation times accumulate mutations in populations. d mutations are passed between organisms.

e             All of the choices are correct.

 

52           The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore a healthy acidic environment is an example of

a     prebiotics. b     probiotics. c lantibiotics.

d    phytobiotics. e riboswitches.

 

53           The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal biota leading to antibiotic-associated colitis, is

a              chloramphenicol.

b             clindamycin. c    ciprofloxacin. d bacitracin.

e             gentamicin.

 

54           The        are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration.

a              streptomycins b               cephalosporins c              macrolides

d             tetracyclines e   penicillins

 

55           Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium botulinum. The C. botulinum is actively growing and releases toxin in the honey. The person becomes ill from ingesting the toxin. This is an example of a/n

a              intoxication.

b             toxemia.

c              hemolysin. d    pandemic. e infection.

 

56           Treponema pallidum is the bacterium that causes syphilis. The gram-negative spirochete has never been cultured on bacteriological media. Select the statement that most accurately describes this disease-causing microbe:

a              There is no way to perform an epidemiological study on this disease. b  Koch's postulates cannot be fulfilled for this disease.

c              Because the bacterium cannot be grown, there is no way to characterize the organism as to staining features, biochemical test reactions, molecular testing, etc.

d             There is no satisfactory way to identify the disease without being able to grow it.

 

 

57           Your patient has a rash, a fever, and a very high white blood cell count. Blood specimens are taken, put into culture bottles, and sent down to the microbiology lab for incubation and analysis. Select the statement that best reflects why microbial analysis of blood is an important step in patient diagnosis:

a              Microbial growth in blood samples may indicate sepsis.

b             A few bacterial cells in a blood sample are no big deal and should be ignored.

c              Blood specimen are often obtain through poor aseptic technique by the healthcare worker: this is documentation of their failure to employ proper universal precautions.

d             A lack of microbes in the blood means that the patient's health is critical.

 

58           If you were a bacterial cell, which of the following would be the most beneficial for you to have or be able to make for the survival of your species?

a              endospore

b             cilia

c              pilus

d             exotoxin

 

59           You are studying a newly identified infectious disease within a population. Think of the typical graph of the course of infection--incubation period through to convalescent period. The new disease reveals a course of infection characterized by fluctuating symptoms, with intermittent periods of invasion (acute period) between prodromal periods. The whole course of infection occurs over a period of months or even years. Based upon the information presented, select the statement that most accurately reflects this new infectious disease:

a              This infectious disease exhibits latency.

b             This is not an infectious disease at all.

c              The host has immune problems and this is the typical course of a disease for that population.

d             Viral infections always present with this type of disease course.

 

60           The prevalence rate of tuberculosis in one particular county in Texas is 7/1000 people, while the incidence rate for 2011 is 2/1000 people. Analyze this data and summarize the situation.

a              The data were collected incorrectly because the two values should match.

b             Incidence rate should really be higher than prevalence rate because it includes all new cases for the year.

c              Prevalence rate is higher than incidence rate because the number of people still alive

with tuberculosis is higher because of better treatments.

d             Prevalence rate and incidence rate cannot be determined for the same disease.

 

61           Which of the following is not true of endogenous retroviruses? a             ERVs are part of the normal biota.

b             ERVs are vital for placental development in sheep. c       ERVs cause disease.

d             ERVs fight off pathogenic viruses.

 

62           Which term-definition pair is mismatched? a       fimbriae - adherence to substrate

 

b             capsules - antiphagocytic factor c              coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots

d             leukocidins - damage white blood cells e               hemolysins - damage red blood cells

 

63           Keratinase has the greatest effect on the a         respiratory system.

b             gastrointestinal system. c             urinary system.

d             genital system. e              skin.

 

64           An endotoxin is

a              secreted by pathogenic organisms.

b             indicative of gram-negative bacterial infection. c               secreted by gram-positive organisms.

d             indicative of fungal infections. e                indicative of viral infections.

 

65           Which of the following is a mismatched term and description?

a              secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites b mixed infection - several agents established at infection site c              acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms d local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site

e             toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues

 

66           Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease? a  removal of blood

b             urogenital tract and feces c         coughing and sneezing

d             skin

e             All of these are normal exit portals.

 

67           Which of the following is an example of sequelae? a       headache from meningitis

b             difficulty swallowing from streptococcal infection c          arthritis from Lyme disease

d             diarrhea from Salmonella enteritidis infection

 

68           The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are a                fomites.

b             aerosols.

c              mechanical vectors. d    droplet nuclei.

e             biological vectors.

 

69           When would Koch's postulates be utilized?

a              to determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab

 

b             to develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab

c              to determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab

d             to formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab

e             whenever the scientific method can not be used to investigate a microbiological problem

 

70           The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the

a              prodromal stage.

b             convalescent stage. c     incubation period. d       period of invasion.

 

71           Leukopenia is the            in the level of white blood cells in a patient. a     elevation

b             stabilization c     decrease

d             abnormal production

 

72           The term             refers to the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood. a          bacteremia

b             septicemia c       viremia

d             toxemia

 

73           Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called a            syndromes.

b             malaise.

c              inflammation. d                asymptomatic.

e             secondary infections.

 

74           Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a a             fomite.

b             carrier.

c              vector.

d             reservoir.

e             source.

 

75           Reservoirs include

a              humans.

b             animals.

c              soil.

d             water.

e             All of the choices are correct.

 

76           An infection spread between animals and humans is a: a              secondary infection.

b             sequela.

 

c              healthcare-associated infection. d           zoonosis.

 

77                          carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease.

a              Asymptomatic

b             Passive

c              Incubation

d             Chronic

e             Convalescent

 

78           Which of the following is transmission of disease from mother to fetus? a            vertical

b             direct

c              vector

d             droplets

e             fomites

 

79           Which of the following does not illustrate the use of universal precaution methods in the handling of patients and body substances?

a              mask and gloves

b             proper disposal of needles

c              healthcare worker with active, open lesions handling patients d                hand washing

e             sterilizing or disinfection of dental hand pieces

 

80           The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the           rate. a   morbidity

b             mortality

c              incidence

d             endemic

e             pandemic