Georgia Military College

PATHO HCR 240

Ch 10

1)Which of these is a single-celled organism that is about the size of a red blood cell and reproduces by a budding process?

2. A client with a diagnosis of sepsis has received intravenous immune globulin (IVIg) as partial treatment. The nurse knows that which client response would best suggest an accurate understanding of IVIg treatment?

3. Which of these is found in the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria?

4. What type of viral hepatitis is not associated with transmission through contact with infected blood?

5. A nurse is instructing a client on the long-term use of antibiotics and antibiotic resistance. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been successful?

6. Which outpatient is at a greater risk for developing Treponema pallidum, the cause of syphilis?

7. A client with cancer has been receiving amphotericin B intravenously. The client asks, “How will this help with my fungal disease?” The health care provider responds:

8. The bacteriologist is staining the slides of a client diagnosed with scarlet fever and rheumatic fever. The slide identifies S. pyogenes and stains purple by crystal violet dye. The result would indicate:

9. An HIV-positive mother passes the virus to her infant during delivery. This type of transmission is known as:

10. The course of any infectious disease progresses through several distinct stages after the pathogen enters the host. Although the duration may vary, which sign/symptom is the hallmark of the prodromal stage?

11. Which factor is considered during serology testing?

12. A hospital client was swabbed on admission for antibiotic-resistant organisms and has just been informed that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is present in his groin. The client has a normal core temperature and white blood cell count. This client is experiencing:

13. A 33-year-old client who is a long-term intravenous user of heroin has been recently diagnosed with hepatitis C. Which portal of entry most likely led to the client's infection?

14. Which agent is considered to be high-risk in a bioterrorism event?

15. Which infective agent contains no DNA or RNA?

16. In reference to infectious disease, a client cannot be a/an:

17. Which description does the nurse recognize fits a client in the prodromal stage of an infection?

18. A client attending a health fair asks how anthrax will be treated in the event of a bioterrorism attack. How should the nurse respond?

19. A client is suspected of having a parasitic infection with roundworms. For what laboratory testing will the nurse prepare the client to most rapidly identify this infection?

20. A client asks the nurse how a broad-spectrum antibiotic works. The best response would be that they are active against:

21. Which of the following would be considered an example of transmitting an infection from person-to-person through shared inanimate objects (fomites)?

22. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), a highly transmissible respiratory infection, crossed international borders in the winter of 2002. What terms are used to describe the outbreak of SARS?

23. Global infectious diseases are now being recognized. These diseases, once known as endemic to one part of the world, are now being found in other parts of the world because of international travel and a global marketplace. Which disease is considered a global infectious disease?

24. Which sequence accurately describes the stages of a disease?

25. Which client scenario best describes an example of infection originating with a fomite?

26. Sputum samples from a client with pneumonia contain an infective agent that has a peptidoglycan cell wall, expresses endotoxins, replicates readily in broth and on agar, grows in clusters, has pili, and does not stain when exposed to crystal violet. This client's pneumonia has what etiology?

27. A client was unaware that intestinal flora are beneficial, stating, “I thought all bacteria were bad.” Which is the nurse's most accurate response?
28. Although growth rate is variable among types of bacteria, the growth of bacteria is dependent on:

29. Although both eukaryotes and prokaryotes are capable of causing infectious diseases in humans, eukaryotes are unique because they have a/an:

30. Which individual is experiencing a health problem that is the result of a parasite?

31. Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are typically spread by which mechanisms?

32. Which of these is a single-celled organism that is about the size of a red blood cell and reproduces by a budding process?

33. Which are characteristics of resident flora?

34. Which agent is the cause of malaria?

35. A specific type of gram-negative bacteria contains endotoxin in the bacterial cell envelope. What is the likely clinical manifestation if these bacteria become pathogenic?

36. A client was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and started on antiviral therapy. The nurse evaluates the client’s understanding of the antiviral drug when the client correctly makes which statement regarding the pharmacologic mechanism of action?

37. A client complains of general malaise and fatigue and has a mild fever. The nurse would evaluate this stage of disease as the:

38. The nurse is teaching a client infected with the flu about viruses. Which explanation would the nurse use to describe a viral infection?

39. Select the assessment data that place a client most at risk for the development of an opportunistic infection. A client who:

40. A hospitalized client's progress has been noted as the convalescent stage. Select the statement that best describes this stage.

41. Which are accurate characteristics of prions?

42. Which best describes the structure of a virus?

43. Transmission of the rabies virus from a dog bite would be best described by which mechanism of entry?

44. The clinical picture, or presentation of a disease in the body, is called:

45. Transmissible neurodegenerative diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are associated with:

46. Canada's Centre for Emergency Preparedness and Response is vigilantly keeping watch for terrorist events involving biologic agents. Of those on the list, which is of highest concern?

47. A client asks the nurse, "Which organisms does a broad-spectrum antibiotic fight?" Which response by the nurse is best?

48. Select the option that best describes a single-celled organism that reproduces by a budding process.

49. A 9-month-old infant has been diagnosed with botulism after he was fed honey. The child's mother was prompted to seek care because of this child's sudden onset of neuromuscular deficits, which were later attributed to the release of substances by Clostridium botulinum. Which virulence factor contributed to this child's illness?

50. The mother of an infant born with profound intellectual disability and hearing loss tells the nurse that she had a viral infection in the first trimester of pregnancy. The nurse identifies which congenital infection as the cause of the fetal defects?

51. A client has been admitted for an acute viral infection. The health care team providing care for the client recognizes which statements as accurate descriptors of the role of viruses in human infections?

52. A client in the second trimester of pregnancy arrives for the first prenatal visit and admits that she and her partner traveled to South America where they went on a rain forest excursion when she was 4 weeks' pregnant. Which congenital mosquito-borne abnormality may be seen on ultrasound if the fetus is affected?
53. There has been an incidence of influenza in both Europe and in the United States. What is the term that best
54. describes this incidence?

55. A client tells the nurse that the primary care provider prescribed an antibiotic. The client was instructed to take the antibiotic three times a day for 10 days. After the 4th day, the client was feeling much better and decided to stop taking the medication. What complication could result from stopping the antibiotic early?