York University - KINE 4020

1)A nutrient needed for the body and that must be supplied to foods is termed a(n):

1. neutralceutical
2. metabolic unit
3. organic nutrient
4. essesntial nutrient
5. macronutrient

2. Which of the following is a micronutrient?

1. iron
2. protein
3. alcohol
4. fibre
5. water

3. Which of the following is an organic nutrient?

1. water
2. fat
3. calcium
4. oxygen
5. iron

4. A body fat reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1800 kcal, which includes 40 grams of fat. What percentage of the total energy intake is provided by fat?

1. 10
2. 15
3. 20
4. 25
5. 30
6. 35

5. What is the kcalorie value of a meal supplying 110 grams of carbohydrates, 25 grams of protein, 20 grams of fat and 5 grams of alcohol?

a) 160

b) 345

c) 560

d) 755

e) 845

f) 985

6. If a group of people consumed an amount of protein equal to the Estimated Average Requirement for their population cohort, what percentage would receive insufficient amounts?

1. 2
2. 10
3. 50
4. 90

7. What is the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for carbohydrates?

a) 5-10%

b) 15-25%

c) 30-40%

d) 45-65%

e) 70-85%

8. Nutrient Dense foods refer to foods which:

1. follow Canadian Food Labeling requirements
2. are greater in weight versus volume
3. provide more nutrients versus volume
4. contain a mixture of carbohydrates, fats and proteins
5. contain all the essential nutrients

9. If a person consumed the upper AMDR limit for fat, as part of a diet containing 2000 kcalories, approximately how many gram of fat would be ingested?

1. 25
2. 37
3. 56
4. 68

5. 78
6. 84
7. 92

h) 100

10. In which of the following Food Groups in the Canadian Rainbow are legumes found?

1. Vegetables and Fruit
2. Grain Products
3. Milk and Alternatives
4. Meat and Alternatives

11. The ingredient List on a Food Label in Canada orders the ingredients by:

1. concentration percentage
2. weight
3. energy percentage
4. alphabetical order
5. nutrient density

12. In what organ does chemical digestion begin?

1. mouth
2. esophagus
3. stomach
4. duodenum of small intestine

13. What type of enzymes are responsible for hydrolyzing the proteins in foods?

1. lipases
2. salivases
3. proteases
4. carboxylases
5. aminolyticases

14. Why is there little-to-no digestion of starch in the stomach?

1. salivary amylase has completed starch digestion in the esophagus
2. mucus inhibits starch digestion
3. gastric amylases only digest fibre
4. salivary amylase is degraded by HCl

15. Peristalsis is:

1. stalling of digestion of foods during specific periods in the digestive/absorptive process
2. the generic name of the perimeter muscles of the GI tract
3. stalled movement of waste material in the perimeter pouches of the large intestine as found in diverticulitis
4. muscular contractions of the GI tract which mix digestive juices with food and propel it along the GI tract

16. The usual pH of material passing through the pyloric sphincter is:

1. 1
2. 3
3. 5
4. 7
5. 9
6. 11
7. 13

17. Your friend is extolling the virtues of a new dietary supplement he bought at a “Health Foods” store. He claims the supplement contains enzymes which once ingested will enhance food digestion in the small intestine, making more nutrients available for absorption. Your response is they:

1. likely will increase the breakdown of foods consumed
2. might interfere with pancreatic enzymes and would be counter-productive
3. could produce diarrhea by over-digesting the food, thus reducing absorption of the nutrients
4. would be destroyed in the stomach and would therefore be ineffective

18. Which of the following organs does NOT secrete digestive enzymes?

1. liver
2. stomach
3. pancreas
4. salivary glands

19. After the pancreatic juices have mixed with stomach chime, what is the pH of the bolus in the jejunum?

1. 1
2. 3
3. 5
4. 7
5. 9
6. 11
7. 13

20. Removal of the gall bladder:

1. has no effect on fat digestion
2. stops fat digestion
3. enhances fat digestion
4. may limit fat digestion

21. Which of the following energy substrates has the least satiation effect?

1. carbohydrates
2. lipids
3. proteins

22. Which of the following is a significant characteristic of dietary fibre?

1. decreases dehydration
2. promotes mineral absorption in the large intestine
3. decreases food transit time
4. decreases peristalsis

23. When nutrients are transported from the intestinal epithelial cells into the vascular system, which is the first organ they arrive at?

1. liver
2. heart
3. pancreas

4. kidneys

24. Which of the following regulates the pH of the stomach?

1. cholecystokinin
2. glucagon
3. secretin
4. gastrin

25. The presence of fat in the intestines stimulates cells of the intestinal wall to release:

1. bile
2. lipases
3. secretin
4. cholecystokinin
5. glucagon

26. Which of the follow is NOT a simple carbohydrate?

1. sugar
2. monosaccharide
3. disaccharide
4. glycogen

27. Typical dietary sources of carbohydrates include all of the following except:

1. sugar
2. lactose
3. fructose
4. corn starch
5. glycogen

28. Gluconeogenesis is:

1. liver glycogen formation
2. starch degradation to glucose
3. conversion of dietary fructose to glucose
4. construction of glucose from amino acids

5. conversion of fat into glucose

29. Which of the following enzymes does not act on simple carbohydrates?

1. sucrase
2. lactase
3. maltase
4. amylase

30. What happens to consumed lactose in lactose intolerant individuals?

1. it is excreated from the large intestine
2. It is broken down in the SI and the glucose molecules are absorbed
3. it is fermented by bacteria in the large intestine
4. it is partially digested by salivary amylase
5. it is curdled by stomach HCl

31. Blood glucose levels could be adequately maintained on a very low carbohydrate diet if there was adequate amounts of:

1. dietary fat
2. dietary protein
3. dietary insulin
4. dietary fibre

32. What is the first organ to respond to an increase in blood glucose concentration?

1. brain
2. liver
3. muscle
4. pancreas
5. stomach
6. salivary glands
7. small intestine

36. A person eating lots of white bread, white rice, ready-to-eat cereals would have a diet with a          Glycemic index

1. very low
2. low
3. moderate
4. high

37. An individual with a chronically low blood glucose level would have a condition known as:

1. Type I Diabetes
2. Type II Diabetes
3. hyperglycemia
4. reactive hypoglycemia
5. fasting hypoglycemia

38. Which of the following is a feature of diabetes?

1. many people with Type 2 Diabetes are overly fat
2. most people with diabetes require insulin therapy
3. diabetes results chiefly from excessive simple carbohydrate intake
4. people with Type I Diabetes are insulin insensitive

39. On an equal weight basis, which of the following has more energy per gram?

1. sucrose
2. lactose
3. high fructose corn syrup
4. starch
5. all are equal

40. Which statement is NOT true about the alternative sweetener aspartame?

1. it has the same calorie equivalent, on a weight-weight basis, as sugar
2. for most individuals moderate consumption, like sugar, is safe
3. it has the same stimulatory effect on sweetness receptors in the tongue as sugar
4. all are true
5. none are true

41. There are approximately 3500 kcalories in a pound of body fat. Substitution of one can of a regular soft drink (150 kcalories) with a can of a “diet” soft drink (1 kcalorie) per day, could reduce body weight by             per month, if the calories in the soft drink were replaced by body fat sources

1. approximately .5 pounds
2. approximately 1.0-1.5 pounds
3. approximately 1.5-2.0 pounds
4. over 2 pounds

42. Which of the following statements about triglycerides is NOT true?

1. triglycerides have three fatty acids attached to three molecules of glycerol
2. all of the fatty acids in a triglyceride are the same length
3. all the fatty acids in a triglyceride have the same amount of saturation
4. all are true
5. none are true

43. Characteristics of hydrogenated oils include all of the following except:

1. they are unhealthy because they become rancid more quickly when stored at room temperature as compared to non-hydrogenated oils
2. they are stored in adipocytes
3. they lower HDL cholesterol and elevate LDL cholesterol in the blood
4. some of their fatty acids change shape from cis to trans during hydrogenation

44. Which oil has the highest amount of MUFA?

1. canola oil
2. soy oil
3. peanut oil
4. olive oil

45. Which of the following foods contains cholesterol?

1. peanuts
2. corn
3. chicken
4. French-fried potatoes
5. olives

46. What is the largest source of cholesterol in the body?

1. shell fish
2. fatty fish
3. meat products
4. endogenous synthesis
5. MUFA’s and PUFA’s

47. How are soluble fibres in the diet thought to help lower blood cholesterol levels?

1. they denature cholesterol in the stomach
2. they hydrolyze cholesterol in the intestinal tract
3. they trap cholesterol in the large intestine and inhibit its absorption
4. they enhance bile excretion

48. Spherical complexes of emulsified fats are known as:

1. micelles
2. chime
3. bolus
4. lipoproteins

49. Which of the following parts of a dietary triglyceride can not be absorbed directly into the blood stream

1. cholesterol
2. glycerol
3. short-chain fatty acids
4. medium-chain fatty acids

50. Which lipoprotein does NOT deliver fatty acids to muscles during physical activity?

1. chylomicrons
2. VLDL
3. LDL
4. HDL

51. What is the precursor of the eicosanoids?