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Homework answers / question archive / Our Lady of The Lake University - PATHO 2410 Protection/Adaptation Test Bank Chapter 1 1)Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease? a
Our Lady of The Lake University - PATHO 2410
Protection/Adaptation Test Bank
Chapter 1
1)Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
a. An inherited disorder
b. A combination of specific etiological factors
c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
d. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment
2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:
a. Subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
b. Signs and symptoms of a disease.
c. Factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
d. Early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.
3. The best definition of the term prognosis is the:
a. Precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
b. Number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
c. Predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
d. Exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.
4. Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
a. Swelling of the knee
b. Fever
c. Pain in the neck
d. Red rash on the face
5. Etiology is defined as the study of the:
a. Causes of a disease
b. Course of a disease
c. Expected complications of a disease
d. Manifestations of a disease
6. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as:
a. Hypertrophy
b. Metaplasia
c. Anaplasia
d. Atrophy
7. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called:
a. Metaplasia
b. Atrophy
c. Dysplasia
d. Hypertrophy
8. A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called:
a. Apoptosis
b. Ischemia
c. Hypertrophy
d. Necrosis
9. When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called:
a. Ischemia
b. Gangrene
c. Hypoxia
d. Necrosis
10. Rigorous weight lifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle cells undergoing:
a. Hypertrophy
b. Dysplasia
c. Atrophy
d. Regeneration
11. The term cancer refers to:
a. Dysplasia
b. Hyperplasia
c. Metaplasia
d. Malignant neoplasm
12. To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
a. Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells
b. Ischemic damage to cells
c. Liquefaction of necrotic tissue
d. Preprogrammed cell self-destruction
13. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Alteration of DNA does not change cell function.
b. Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves.
c. All types of cells die at the same rate.
d. Mild ischemia causes immediate cell death.
14. Caseation necrosis refers to an area where:
a. Cell proteins have been denatured.
b. Cell are liquefied by enzymes.
c. Dead cells form a thick cheesy substance.
d. Bacterial invasion has occurred.
15. Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:
a. An iatrogenic cause of cancer
b. A preventative measure
c. A precipitating factor
d. A predisposing condition
16. A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed:
a. Latent stage
b. Predisposing factor
c. Incidence
d. Precipitating factor
17. The term homeostasis refers to:
a. The causative factors in a particular disease.
b. Maintenance of a stable internal environment.
c. A condition that triggers an acute episode.
d. A collection of signs and symptoms.
18. Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease has been established?
a. Symptoms
b. Occurrence
c. Manifestations
d. Complication
19. Pathophysiology involves the study of:
a. The structure of the human body.
b. The functions of various organs in the body.
c. Functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.
d. Various cell structures and related functions.
20. Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology?
a. The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
b. The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease
c. Identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms
d. The global search for emerging diseases
21. Which of the following can cause cell injury or death? (Select all that apply)
a. Hypoxia
b. Exposure to excessive cold
c. Excessive pressure on a tissue
d. Chemical toxins
22. All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT:
a. Follow cancer screening guidelines.
b. Use sun block agents whenever exposed.
c. Participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis.
d. Choose high fiber, lower fat foods.
23. The term disease refers to:
a. The period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
b. A deviation from the normal state of health and function.
c. The treatment measures used to promote recovery.
d. A basic collection of signs and symptoms.
24. A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a (an):
a. Acute disease
b. Multiorgan disorder
c. Syndrome
d. Manifestation
25. All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT:
a. The initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions.
b. If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly, the cell may be able to recover and return to its normal state.
c. If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time, the damage becomes irreversible and the cell dies.
d. Initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function.
26. Which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research?
a. Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving the experimental therapy.
b. Both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy.
c. The research subjects do not know, but the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving placebo or standard therapy.
d. Only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy.
27. If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called:
a. The placebo effect
b. Evidence-based research
c. Blind research studies
d. Approval for immediate distribution
28. A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called:
a. Acute
b. Latent
c. Chronic
d. Manifestation
29. The term prognosis refers to the:
a. Period of recovery and return to a normal state.
b. Expected outcome of the disease.
c. Mortality and morbidity rates for a given population.
d. Typical collection of signs and symptoms.
30. When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as:
a. Atrophy
b. Liquefactive necrosis
c. Apoptosis
d. Infarction
31. During the evaluation process for a new therapy’s effectiveness and safety, a double blind study may be conducted during:
a. The first stage
b. The second stage
c. The third stage
d. Any of these stages
32. Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
a. To predict the prognosis
b. To determine treatments
c. To develop preventative measures
d. To develop morbidity statistics
33. Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as:
a. Abnormal metabolic processes
b. Certain food additives
c. Genetic defects
d. Localized hypoxia
34. Which of the following is usually included in a medical history? (Select all that apply)
a. Past illnesses or surgeries
b. Current illnesses, acute and chronic
c. Prescribed medication or other treatments
d. Nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies
e. Current allergies
35. A situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious disease within a given area is called a/an:
a. Epidemic
b. Exacerbation
c. Morbidity
d. Pandemic
36. The term pathogenesis refers to:
a. The development of a disease or sequence of events related to tissue changes involved in the disease process.
b. The determination of the cause(s) involved in the development of a malignant neoplasm.
c. The specific signs and symptoms involved in the change from an acute disease to a chronic disease.
d. The changes in cells of affected tissue that result in necrosis.
Chapter 5
1. Tears are considered to be part of the: (Select all that apply)
a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Specific defenses
e. Nonspecific defenses
2. A specific defense for the body is:
a. Phagocytosis
b. Sensitized T lymphocytes
c. The inflammatory response
d. Intact skin and mucous membranes
3. The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to:
a. Phagocytosis of foreign material
b. Local vasodilation
c. Any tissue injury
d. Formation of purulent exudates
4. Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include:
a. Albumin and fibrinogen.
b. Growth factors and cell enzymes.
c. Macrophages and neutrophils.
d. Histamine and prostaglandins.
5. Which of the following result directly from the release of chemical mediators following a moderate burn injury?
(Select all that apply)
a. Pain
b. Local vasoconstriction
c. Increased capillary permeability
d. Pallor
6. Granulation tissue is best described as:
a. Highly vascular, very fragile, and very susceptible to infection.
b. An erosion through the wall of viscera, leading to complications.
c. A type of adhesion with no vascularization.
d. A form of stenosis, in a duct, that is extremely tough and resists attack by microbes.
7. Edema associated with inflammation results directly from:
a. Increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment.
b. Increased phagocytes in the affected area.
c. Decreased capillary permeability.
d. General vasoconstriction.
8. The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from:
a. Increased interstitial fluid.
b. Production of complement.
c. A large number of white blood cells (WBCs) entering the area.
d. Increased blood flow into the area.
9. What is the correct order of the following events in the inflammatory response immediately after tissue injury?
1. Increased permeability of blood vessels
2. Dilation of blood vessels
3. Transient vasoconstriction
4. Migration of leukocytes to the area
5. Hyperemia
a. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
c. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
d. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
10. The process of phagocytosis involves the:
a. Ingestion of foreign material and cell debris by leukocytes.
b. Shift of fluid and protein out of capillaries.
c. Formation of a fibrin mesh around the infected area.
d. Movement of erythrocytes through the capillary wall.
11. Systemic effects of severe inflammation include:
a. Erythema and warmth
b. Loss of movement at the affected joint
c. Fatigue, anorexia, and mild fever
d. Abscess formation
12. The term leukocytosis means:
a. Increased white blood cells (WBCs) in the blood.
b. Decreased WBCs in the blood.
c. Increased number of immature circulating leukocytes.
d. Significant change in the proportions of WBCs.
13. Which of the following statements applies to fever?
a. Viral infection is usually present.
b. Heat-loss mechanisms have been stimulated.
c. It is caused by a signal to the thalamus.
d. It results from release of pyrogens into the circulation.
14. Mechanisms to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal level include:
a. General cutaneous vasodilation.
b. Generalized shivering.
c. Increased heart rate.
d. Increased metabolic rate.
15. Replacement of damaged tissue by similar functional cells is termed:
a. Fibrosis
b. Regeneration
c. Resolution
d. Repair by scar tissue
16. Scar tissue consists primarily of:
a. Granulation tissue
b. Epithelial cells
c. Collagen fibers
d. New capillaries and smooth muscle fibers
17. Which of the following promotes rapid healing?
a. Closely approximated edges of a wound
b. Presence of foreign material
c. Exposure to radiation
d. Vasoconstriction in the involved area
18. Glucocorticoids are used to treat inflammation because they directly:
a. Promote the release of prostaglandins at the site.
b. Decrease capillary permeability.
c. Mobilize lymphocytes and neutrophils.
d. Prevent infection.
19. Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Decreased bone density.
b. Wasting of skeletal muscle.
c. Opportunistic infections.
d. Increased leukocyte production.
20. Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT an anti-inflammatory agent?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Prednisone
c. Aspirin
d. Ibuprofen
21. A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as:
a. Full-thickness
b. Deep partial-thickness
c. Superficial partial-thickness
d. First-degree
22. A woman has burns on the anterior surfaces of her right arm, chest, and right leg. The percentage of body surface area burned is approximately:
a. 13.5%
b. 18%
c. 22.5%
d. 31.5%
23. The characteristic appearance of a full-thickness burn is:
a. Painful with multiple blisters
b. Heavy bleeding
c. Red with some swelling
d. Dry, firm, charred, or hard white surface
24. A typical source of infection in burn areas is:
a. The skin grafts
b. Microbes surviving in the hair follicles in the burn area
c. Circulating blood bringing microbes to the burn wound
d. Opportunistic virus in digestive tract
25. A large burn area predisposes to decreased blood pressure because:
a. Bleeding occurs under the burn surface.
b. The heart is damaged by toxic materials from the burn.
c. Fluid and protein shift out of the blood.
d. Vasoconstriction occurs in the burn area.
26. During an inflammatory response, hyperemia is caused by:
a. Increased blood flow in the area.
b. Increased capillary permeability.
c. Irritation of sensory nerve endings by histamine.
d. Increased leukocytes in the area.
27. The advantages of applying a biosynthetic skin substitute to a large area of full-thickness burns include: (Select all that apply)
a. Reduced risk of infection
b. Decreased loss of plasma protein and fluid
c. Developing stronger fibrous scar tissue
d. More rapid healing
e. Regeneration of all glands, nerves, and hair follicles
28. Purulent exudates usually contain:
a. Small amounts of plasma protein & histamine in water.
b. Red blood cells & all types of white blood cells.
c. Numerous leukocytes, bacteria, and cell debris.
d. Large amounts of water containing a few cells.
29. Isoenzymes in the circulating blood:
a. Are a type of plasma protein normally present in the circulating blood.
b. Often indicate the precise location of an inflammatory response.
c. Are normally released from leukocytes during the inflammatory response.
d. Are pyrogens, causing low-grade fever.
30. A serous exudate is best described as a:
a. Thin, watery, colorless exudate.
b. Thick, sticky, cloudy secretion.
c. Thick, greenish material containing microbes.
d. Brownish, clotted material.
31. Systemic manifestations of an inflammatory response include:
a. Edema and erythema.
b. Area of necrosis and loss of function.
c. Pain and tenderness.
d. Fever and malaise.
32. Some local effects of a general inflammatory response would include:
a. High, spiking fever and chills.
b. Redness, warmth, and swelling
c. Leukopenia and reduced erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d. Anorexia and headaches
33. Prolonged administration of glucocorticoids such as prednisone may cause: (Select all that apply)
a. Atrophy of lymphoid tissue.
b. Increased resistance to infection.
c. Thrombocytopenia.
d. Decreased protein synthesis.
34. Application of ice to an injured knee reduces edema by:
a. Promoting return of lymph fluid.
b. Causing local vasoconstriction.
c. Increasing the rate of tissue repair.
d. Causing systemic vasodilation.
35. Healing of large areas of skin loss (including dermis and epidermis) would be most successful through:
a. Rapid mitosis and regeneration of skin layers.
b. Resolution of damaged cells in the area.
c. Covering the area with biosynthetic skin substitute.
d. Graft of fibrous tissue to the area.
36. Prostaglandins are produced from and cause .
a. Activated plasma protein; increased capillary permeability
b. Mast cells; vasodilation and pain
c. Platelets; attraction of neutrophils, chemotaxis
d. Mast cell granules; activation of histamines and kinins
37. The number of neutrophils in the blood is increased significantly:
a. During allergic reactions.
b. During chronic inflammation.
c. To produce antibodies.
d. In order to promote phagocytosis.
38. An abscess contains:
a. Serous exudate
b. Purulent exudate
c. Fibrinous exudate
d. Hemorrhagic exudate
39. Nonspecific agents that protect uninfected cells against viruses are called:
a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. Interferons
d. Pyrogens
40. Causes of inflammation include:
a. Direct physical damage such as cuts and sprains
b. Allergic reactions
c. Infection
d. All of the above
41. In normal capillary exchange, what is net hydrostatic pressure based on?
a. The difference between the hydrostatic pressure within the capillary, as compared with the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid
b. The relative osmotic pressures in the blood and the interstitial fluid
c. The difference between the hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure within the capillary
d. The difference between the concentrations of blood cells, plasma proteins, and dissolved substances in the blood and the interstitial fluid
42. The cardinal signs of inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Redness
b. Loss of function
c. Nausea
d. Swelling
43. Drugs that have anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic activities include: (Select all that apply)
a. COX-2 inhibitors (NSAIDs).
b. Glucocorticoids (e.g., prednisone).
c. Ibuprofen (NSAID).
d. Acetaminophen.
e. Aspirin (ASA).
44. Aspirin (ASA) is discouraged for treatment of viral infection in children because of:
a. Decreased bone growth after puberty.
b. Frequent production of blood clots.
c. Formation of a granuloma filled with virus.
d. The risk of developing Reye’s syndrome.
45. Systemic manifestations of inflammation include all EXCEPT:
a. Pyrexia
b. Malaise
c. Local swelling
d. Anorexia
46. Which of the following cellular elements found in the inflammatory response are responsible for phagocytosis?
a. Macrophages
b. Basophils
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes
e. Eosinophils
47. Which chemical mediator is involved in prolonging the inflammatory response?
a. Bradykinin
b. Histamine
c. Leukotrienes
d. Chemotactic factors
48. Potential complications after healing by scar formation include all the following EXCEPT:
a. Lack of sensory function in the area.
b. Contractures and adhesions.
c. Increased hair growth.
d. Keloid formation.
49. All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing EXCEPT:
a. Resolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover.
b. Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue.
c. Regeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis.
d. Scar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis.
50. Which of the following statements regarding inflammation is incorrect?
a. Inflammation caused by an allergen or a burn will typically produce a serous exudate.
b. Infection is one cause of inflammation.
c. Inflammation is the body’s nonspecific response to tissue injury.
d. Disorders are named using the ending -sarcoma to indicate inflammation.
51. Which of the following helps to localize and “wall off” the foreign material during an inflammatory response?
a. Lymphocytes
b. Increased fluid
c. Fibrinogen
d. Antibodies
52. Why is an application of cold recommended as part of the RICE first aid measures immediately following an inflammatory response due to injury?
a. It improves circulation in the area removing chemical mediators.
b. It causes local vasoconstriction to reduce local edema.
c. It draws more phagocytic cells to the area to remove debris.
d. It promotes immediate healing.
53. One goal for current research in tissue engineering is to:
a. Create a functional replacement tissue when regeneration is not possible.
b. Adapt cells from the injured organ to produce replacement tissue.
c. Design a nonliving synthetic replacement tissue.
d. Use stem cells as a temporary covering for damaged tissue.
54. Identify the proper sequence in the healing process.
a. A blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels develop; phagocytosis of foreign material and cell debris occurs; and collagen fibers form a tight, strong scar.
b. A blood clot forms; phagocytes remove foreign material and cell debris; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels form; and collagen fibers promote formation of a tight, strong scar.
c. Collagen fibers form in the damaged area; a blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; angiogenesis takes place; and foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes.
d. Foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes; a blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels form; and collagen fibers grow and cross-link.
55. All of the following are factors that promote healing EXCEPT:
a. Good nutrition: protein, vitamins A and C.
b. A clean, undisturbed wound.
c. Effective circulation.
d. Advanced age.
56. Identify the correct statement about burns:
a. The severity of the burn depends on the temperature, duration, and extent of the burn.
b. Young children are less likely to suffer severe burns from immersion in excessively hot water.
c. Burns to the palms of the hands are more damaging than burns on the face.
d. With a major burn, excessive bleeding usually causes shock.
57. Which statement applies to the recommended emergency care for burns?
a. Drop and lie completely still on your back.
b. Call a neighbor for help if the burn appears to be extensive.
c. Apply lotion and cover burn tightly with a sheet or towel.
d. Cover the burn area with clean, cool, or tepid water and remove nonsticking clothing.
58. Inhalation of carbon monoxide is a threat for many burn patients because this gas:
a. Causes swelling in the trachea.
b. Quickly reduces the available oxygen in the blood.
c. Prevents full expansion of the lungs.
d. Is toxic to the nervous system.
59. Hypermetabolism is common with major burns because of:
a. Increased heat loss from the burn wound.
b. Demand for tissue repair.
c. Recurrent stress response.
d. All of the above
60. How does scar tissue usually cause obstructions to develop in tube-like structures?
a. Scar tissue continues to grow and spread, causing a blockage.
b. Scar tissue does not stretch, but rather shrinks in time, causing narrowing.
c. Scar tissue twists and forms knots as it develops.
d. Scar tissue attaches to nearby normal tissue, causing obstruction.
61. Which of the following is a serious potential complication found only with the anti-inflammatory COX-2 inhibitor drugs?
a. Increased risk of infection at the site of inflammation
b. Reye’s syndrome developing in children and young adults
c. Increased incidence of heart attacks
d. Greatly delayed blood clotting
Chapter 6
1. Bacteria that form an irregular cluster of spheres are called:
a. Bacilli
b. Diplococci
c. Staphylococci
d. Streptococci
2. A strict anaerobe requires which specific environment?
a. A dry environment
b. An acidic medium
c. Air at a temperature less than 61 F/16 C
d. The absence of oxygen
3. The presence of the bacterial capsule:
a. Aids in the release of endotoxins
b. Protects the microbe from phagocytosis
c. Increases the release of toxins and enzymes
d. Prevents replication of the bacterium
4. Microbial mutation means that:
a. Genetic information has changed.
b. Pathogens become nonpathogens.
c. The microbe survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate.
d. The immune response to that microbe is strengthened.
5. A bacterial endospore can:
a. Also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium.
b. Exist in latent form inside a host cell.
c. Reproduce very rapidly.
d. Survive high temperatures and a dry environment.
6. The structure of a virus includes:
a. A cell wall membrane
b. Metabolic enzymes for replication
c. A protein coat and either DNA or RNA
d. A slime capsule and cilia
7. What method do viruses use to replicate?
a. Binary fission
b. Budding of a daughter cell from the parent viral cell
c. Producing reproductive spores
d. Using a host cell to produce and assemble components
8. A retrovirus such as HIV contains:
a. RNA and enzymes for its conversion.
b. A double strand of DNA.
c. Many enzymes to limit budding of new virions.
d. Numerous mitochondria.
9. How do antiviral drugs act?
a. They interfere with cell wall development.
b. They decrease cell membrane permeability.
c. They destroy new, immature viral particles.
d. They reduce the rate of viral replication.
10. Which statement applies to yeasts?
a. They are usually considered to be pathogenic.
b. They seldom contain a distinct nucleus.
c. They may cause opportunistic infection in the body.
d. They are normally not found in large numbers in resident flora.
11. Fungi reproduce by: (Select all that apply)
a. Budding
b. Extension of hyphae
c. Binary fission
d. Production of spores
12. Which of the following is NOT classified as a protozoan agent of disease?
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Tinea pedis
d. Entamoeba histolytica
13. Which of the following is a characteristic of rickettsia?
a. It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe.
b. It exists in three forms.
c. It causes sexually transmitted disease.
d. It reproduces by budding.
14. Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by which of the following?
a. Mosquitoes (bites)
b. Inhaling contaminated particles
c. Sexual intercourse
d. Cysts in feces
15. Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)?
a. It exists in all areas of the body.
b. Different species inhabit various areas of the body.
c. It is of no benefit to the human host.
d. It consists only of bacteria.
16. Which of the following is normally considered sterile?
a. Urine
b. Pharynx
c. Distal urethra
d. Vagina
17. The term nosocomial infection means:
a. Transmission involves an insect or animal host.
b. Acquired in a hospital or medical facility.
c. Transmitted by a fomite.
d. Apread by direct contact with secretions from an open lesion.
18. Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes:
a. Touching a contaminated countertop.
b. Sexual intercourse.
c. Drinking contaminated water.
d. Inhaling dust-borne microbes.
19. What does the term carrier mean?
a. A person with active infection who acts as a reservoir for microbes
b. Animals, insects, objects, or surfaces contaminated by pathogens
c. An individual who is contagious through infected secretions on the hands
d. An asymptomatic person whose body harbors pathogens and can transmit them to others
20. Opportunistic infection may develop when:
a. Pathogens enter the body but cannot colonize the site of entry.
b. An imbalance occurs in the normal resident flora.
c. Host resistance increases, and the balance of resident flora is restored.
d. Contaminated food or water is unknowingly ingested.
21. Host resistance is promoted by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Prescribed immunizations.
b. Chronic respiratory disease.
c. Vitamin and mineral supplements.
d. Appropriate inflammatory or immune response.
22. Which of the following factors would NOT increase the virulence of a specific microbe?
a. Secretion of endotoxin
b. Presence of a bacterial capsule
c. Production of interferons
d. Secretion of invasive enzymes
23. That time in the course of an infection when the infected person may experience a headache or fatigue and senses he or she is “coming down with something” is referred to as which of the following?
a. Subclinical period
b. Eclipse period
c. Prodromal period
d. Presymptomatic period
24. The principle of Universal Precautions is based on:
a. Using disinfectants at all times to eliminate cross-infections.
b. Not touching any open or bleeding lesions.
c. Sterilizing all instruments and equipment after each use.
d. Assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection.
25. The “incubation period” refers to the time period between:
a. Entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease.
b. The onset of the prodromal period and the peak of the acute infection.
c. The onset of clinical signs and signs of recovery from infection.
d. The acute period and establishment of chronic infection.
26. What does “bacteremia” refer to?
a. Numerous pathogens circulating and reproducing in the blood
b. Uncontrolled sepsis throughout the body
c. Multiple infections, primary and secondary, established in the body
d. Microbes present in the blood
27. Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
a. Fever and leukocytosis
b. Headache and anorexia
c. Pain, erythema, and swelling
d. Nausea, weight loss, and fatigue
28. What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?
a. To determine the type of microbe present in an exudate
b. To provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth
c. To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it
d. To provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication
29. A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:
a. Destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
b. Destroy all pathogenic microbes in contact with the agent.
c. Reduce the replication of many bacteria.
d. Inhibit the growth of most spores and acid-fast bacteria.
30. How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?
a. It interferes with cell-wall synthesis.
b. It blocks protein synthesis.
c. It increases cell membrane permeability.
d. It prevents DNA replication.
31. Secondary infection may occur with administration of antibacterial drugs because the:
a. Patient is allergic to the drug.
b. Balance of species in the resident flora is upset.
c. Mucosa of the stomach is irritated.
d. Infecting microbes spread to adjacent areas.
32. All of the following are mechanisms of antiviral drug action EXCEPT:
a. Interference with attachment to host cell.
b. Block assembly of viral particles.
c. Interference with mitosis.
d. Shedding of protein coat.
33. Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because:
a. Antiviral drugs lower host resistance.
b. The virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis.
c. Respiratory droplets transmit infections.
d. The viral infection is usually self-limiting.
34. The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is:
a. Destruction of the mucosa in the lower respiratory tract.
b. Replication of the virus in respiratory secretions.
c. Destruction of leukocytes and macrophages in the lungs.
d. Inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium.
35. What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?
a. Immunosuppression
b. Bone marrow damage
c. Presence of bacterial infection
d. An allergic or autoimmune reaction
36. When an infection or inflammation is suspected, what does leucopenia often indicate?
a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Allergic reaction
d. Septicemia
37. Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?
a. The microbe exists as a chain of cells.
b. It causes a common STD.
c. It possesses many flagella.
d. It is excreted in feces.
38. Which of the following microbes is classified as an obligate intracellular parasite?
a. Fungus
b. Bacterium
c. Virus
d. Protozoa
39. Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus? (Select all that apply)
a. It is an obligate intracellular parasite.
b. It contains RNA.
c. It usually causes nausea and vomiting.
d. There are three subtypes: A, B, C.
40. The widespread necrosis of respiratory mucosa caused by an influenza infection often gives rise to:
a. Severe anemia
b. Secondary infections
c. Asthma
d. Emphysema
41. Prions cannot be cultured in a PETRI plate of media because:
a. They take so long to grow. They block the invasion of pathogenic bacteria.
b. They require extensive amounts of specialized nutrients.
c. They are proteinaceous particles, not living organisms.
d. They are viruses that don’t grow on conventional media.
42. Which of the following statements applies to Influenza A H1N1?
a. It alters human chromosomes to cause manifestations.
b. It usually causes severe respiratory distress and high fever.
c. Infection is common in the elderly.
d. It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses.
43. Which of the following does NOT directly determine the virulence of a microbe?
a. Capacity for opportunism
b. Production of toxins
c. Ability to mutate
d. Invasive qualities
44. Which of the following is a function of interferons?
a. They block the invasion of pathogenic bacteria.
b. They reduce the inflammatory response to local infection.
c. They increase host cell resistance to viral invasion.
d. They may facilitate the spread of some cancer cells.
45. Inflamed tissue is likely to become infected because:
a. The immune system is not effective in inflamed tissue.
b. The increased fluid and protein in the inflamed area supports microbial growth.
c. Phagocytes cannot penetrate the inflamed areas.
d. Capillaries are less permeable in the affected area.
46. When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a/an:
a. Sporadic occurrence
b. Epidemic
c. Pandemic
d. Emerging disease
47. Which of the following is the primary difference between an antiseptic and a disinfectant?
a. Antiseptic is used on living tissue, whereas disinfectant is designed for nonliving surfaces.
b. Antiseptic is much stronger than the potency of a disinfectant.
c. Antiseptic often causes allergic skin reactions, whereas disinfectant is always hypoallergenic.
d. Antiseptic is effective against endospores; disinfectants are not effective against endospores.
48. Drugs that are designed to inhibit or slow down growth of microbes but not necessarily kill them are considered:
a. Ineffective
b. Bacteriostatic
c. Narrow-spectrum
d. Bactericidal
a. nfections
