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Homework answers / question archive / Our Lady of The Lake University - PATHO 2410 Cognition/Perception Mobility Test Bank Chapter 15 1)What do the extrinsic muscles of the eye control? a
Our Lady of The Lake University - PATHO 2410
Cognition/Perception Mobility Test Bank
Chapter 15
1)What do the extrinsic muscles of the eye control?
a. Movement of the eyeball
b. Movement of the eyelid
c. Size od the pupil
d. Shape of the lens
2. What must happen for the pupil of the eye to dilate?
a. The circular muscle of the iris must contract.
b. Cranial nerve III must be activated.
c. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system is required.
d. The optic nerve must be stimulated.
3. Which of the following is caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens?
a. Nystagmus
b. Astigmatism
c. Hyperopia
d. Strabismus
4. Trachoma is an eye infection caused by:
a. Influenza virus.
b. Candida albicans.
c. Staphylococcus bacteria.
d. Chlamydia bacteria.
5. Which statement does NOT apply to chronic glaucoma?
a. Degeneration and obstruction of the trabecular network
b. Gradual increase in intraocular pressure
c. Abnormally narrow angle between the cornea and iris
d. Damage to the retina and optic nerve
6. Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision?
a. Retinal detachment
b. Chronic (wide-angle) glaucoma
c. Cataract
d. Macular degeneration
7. Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye?
a. Glaucoma
b. Cataract
c. Macular degeneration
d. Keratitis
8. Which of the following is a likely consequence of an untreated detached retina?
a. Lack of nutrients causing death of retinal cells
b. Edema of the cornea causing blurred vision
c. Cupping of the optic disc with damage to the optic nerve
d. Damage to the fovea centralis
9. Which of the following is a sign of a detached retina?
a. Painless blurring of vision
b. Eye pain, halos around lights, and nausea
c. Progressive loss of central vision
d. No pain, development of a dark area in the visual field
10. What is the basic pathological change with macular degeneration?
a. Increased amount of aqueous humor in the eye
b. Movement of vitreous humor between the retina and the choroid
c. Degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis
d. Damage to the optic nerve and meninges
11. What does the inner ear contain?
a. Malleus, incus, and stapes
b. Organ of Corti and semicircular canals
c. Tympanic membrane and auditory canal
d. Ossicles and oval window
12. Which of the following is an example of conduction deafness?
a. Damage to the organ of Corti
b. Degeneration of cranial nerve VIII
c. Adhesions reducing the movement of the ossicles
d. Trauma affecting the temporal lobe
13. In a case of acute otitis media, what would a purulent discharge in the external canal of the ear and some pain relief likely indicate?
a. Infection of the external ear
b. Obstruction of the auditory tube
c. Rupture of the tympanic membrane
d. Spread of infection into the mastoid cells
14. How does otosclerosis cause hearing loss?
a. Fixation of the stapes to the oval window
b. Adhesions between the ossicles
c. Fibrosis in the tympanic membrane
d. Overgrowth of bone obstructing the auditory tube
15. Why does vertigo occur with Ménière’s syndrome?
a. Fluid is lost from the inner ear.
b. Increased blood pressure causes edema in the middle and inner ears.
c. Damage occurs to the vestibular branch of the auditory nerve.
d. Excessive endolymph impairs the function of hair cells in the labyrinth.
16. Which is the early effect of age-related macular degeneration?
a. Loss of central visual acuity
b. Intermittent pain and blurred vision
c. Loss of peripheral vision
d. Loss of night vision and color perception
17. Which of the following is often the first sign of ototoxicity from drugs or chemicals?
a. Sudden total loss of hearing
b. Tinnitus
c. Severe pain in ear
d. Fluid exudate draining from ear
18. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Conduction deafness results from inner ear damage.
b. Cochlear implants may restore hearing in cases of sensorineural loss.
c. Damage to the auditory area of the brain causes deafness in one ear.
d. Cochlear implants can replace the auditory pathway in all deaf individuals.
19. Loss of the left visual field results from damage to the:
a. Left optic nerve
b. Right optic nerve
c. Left occipital lobe
d. Right occipital lobe
20. The involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes is referred to as:
a. Strabismus.
b. Nystagmus.
c. Presbyopia.
d. Diplopia.
21. An infection that damages the auditory nerve can cause what type of hearing loss?
a. Sensorineural
b. Conduction
c. Semiacute
d. Inflammatory
22. Which fluid is found surrounding the optic disc?
a. Aqueous humor
b. Vitreous humor
c. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. Tears
23. The area providing the greatest visual acuity is the:
a. Macula lutea
b. Fovea centralis
c. Optic disc
d. Lens
24. Narrow-angle glaucoma develops when the angle is decreased between the:
a. Retina and ciliary process.
b. Lens and ciliary body.
c. Iris and cornea.
d. Iris and lens.
25. The lens and cornea are nourished by:
a. Small capillaries
b. Tears
c. Vitreous humor
d. Aqueous humor
26. Which term refers to near-sightedness?
a. Hyperopia
b. Presbyopia
c. Myopia
d. Diplopia
27. Severe pain develops with narrow-angle glaucoma when the:
a. Pupils are constricted
b. Pupils are dilated
c. Lens changes shape
d. Excess vitreous humor forms
28. The semicircular canals of the inner ear are responsible for:
a. Balance and equilibrium
b. Hearing in the upper frequency range
c. Hearing in the lower frequency range
d. Balancing the pressure in the auditory canal
29. Trachoma is indicated by the presence of:
a. Purulent exudate and red sclerae.
b. Corneal abrasions by the infected eyelids.
c. Diplopia and cloudy lens.
d. Ptosis and fixed dilation of the pupil.
30. Which of the statements apply to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus?
a. It involves the conjunctiva.
b. It is highly contagious.
c. It is commonly known as “pinkeye.”
d. It usually causes keratitis and permanent visual loss.
31. Herpes simplex virus is a common cause of:
a. Conjunctivitis.
b. Corneal ulceration and scarring.
c. Eye infection in the neonate.
d. Total blindness.
32. Sensory receptors that provide information about body movement, orientation, or muscle stretch are referred to as:
a. Visceroceptors.
b. Exteroceptors.
c. Mechanoceptors.
d. Proprioceptors.
Chapter 9
1. Which of the following cells produce new bone?
a. Osteocytes
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteoclasts
d. Stem cells from the bone marrow
2. What is the chemical transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?
a. Norepinephrine
b. GABA
c. Serotonin
d. Acetylcholine
3. What are the two types of bone tissue?
a. Vascular and nonvascular
b. Spongy and calcified
c. Compact and cancellous
d. Dense and pliable
4. Which of the following would identify an open or compound fracture?
a. The skin and soft tissue are exposed at the fracture site.
b. A bone is crushed into many small pieces.
c. The bone appears bent with a partial fracture line.
d. One end of a bone is forced into an adjacent bone.
5. Which of the following describes a Colles’ fracture?
a. The distal radius is broken.
b. The distal fibula is broken.
c. A vertebra appears crushed.
d. A spontaneous fracture occurs in weakened bone.
6. During the fracture healing process, the hematoma:
a. Is broken down and absorbed immediately.
b. Provides the base for bone cells to produce new bone.
c. Is the structure into which granulation tissue grows.
d. Produces fibroblasts to lay down new cartilage.
7. When a fracture is healing, the procallus or fibrocartilaginous callus:
a. Can bear weight
b. Serves as a splint across the fracture site
c. Is the tissue that lays down new cartilage
d. Is made up of new bone
8. The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by causing:
a. Excessive bone movement
b. Severe ischemia and tissue necrosis
c. Malunion or nonunion
d. Fat emboli to form
9. What is a sign of a dislocation?
a. Crepitus
b. Pain and tenderness
c. Increased range of motion at a joint
d. Deformity at a joint
10. All of the following predispose to osteoporosis EXCEPT:
a. Weight-bearing activity
b. A sedentary lifestyle
c. Long-term intake of glucocorticoids
d. Calcium deficit
11. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to osteoporosis?
a. Bone resorption is greater than bone formation.
b. It causes compression fractures of the vertebrae.
c. Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder.
d. It often leads to kyphosis and loss of height.
12. Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteogenic sarcoma?
a. Intermittent, increasing with activity
b. Sharp, increased with joint movement
c. Mild, aching when weight-bearing
d. Steady, severe, and persisting with rest
13. How is Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy inherited?
a. Autosomal recessive gene
b. X-linked recessive gene
c. Autosomal dominant gene
d. Codominant gene
14. Which of the following is true about Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?
a. There is difficulty climbing stairs or standing up at 2 to 3 years of age.
b. It involves only the legs and pelvis.
c. Skeletal muscle atrophy can be seen in the legs of a toddler.
d. It cannot be detected in any carriers.
15. The most common type of joint, which are freely movable, are called:
a. Synarthroses
b. Amphiarthroses
c. Anarthroses
d. Diarthroses
16. Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
a. Inflammation and fibrosis develop at the joints.
b. Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints.
c. It progresses bilaterally through the small joints.
d. There are no changes in the bone at the affected joints.
17. What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?
a. Decreases over time
b. Quite severe in the early stages
c. Aggravated by general muscle aching
d. Increased with weight-bearing and activity
18. What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
a. The osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
b. The wider joint space
c. Decreased amount of synovial fluid in the cavity
d. Fibrosis involving the joint capsule and ligaments
19. Joints affected by osteoarthritis can sometimes affect healthy joints by:
a. Causing enzymes to be released that travel to other joints.
b. Bacteria traveling from the affected join to a healthy one through the bloodstream.
c. Inflammation and edema affecting the entire limb.
d. The affected individual’s exerting stress on the normal joint to protect the damaged one.
20. What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Random single joints, progressing to involve other joints
b. Bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints
c. Abused or damaged joints first, then joints damaged by compensatory movement
d. Progressive degeneration in selected joints
21. What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Degenerative disorder involving the small joints
b. Chronic inflammatory disorder affecting all joints
c. Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
d. Inflammatory disorder causing damage to many organs
22. How is the articular cartilage damaged in rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Enzymatic destruction by the pannus
b. Inflamed synovial membrane covers the cartilage
c. Fibrous tissue connects the ends of the bones
d. Blood supply to the cartilage is lost
23. How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Relatively normal
b. Enlarged, firm, crepitus with movement
c. Deformed, pale, and nodular
d. Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch
24. Ankylosis and deformity develop in rheumatoid arthritis because:
a. Skeletal muscle hypertrophies.
b. Fibrosis occurs in the joint.
c. Replacement cartilage changes alignment.
d. Ligaments and tendons shorten.
25. Systemic effects of rheumatoid arthritis are manifested as:
a. Nodules in various tissues, severe fatigue, and anorexia.
b. Headache, leukopenia, and high fever.
c. Swelling and dysfunction in many organs.
d. Progressive damage to a joint.
26. What is a common effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Leukocytosis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Severe anemia
d. Orthostatic hypotension
27. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) differs from the adult form in that:
a. Only small joints are affected.
b. Rheumatoid factor is not present in JRA, but systemic effects are more severe.
c. Onset is more insidious in JRA.
d. Deformity and loss of function occur in most children with JRA.
28. Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?
a. Multiple joints that are swollen, red, and painful at one time
b. Presence of mild fever, fatigue, and leukocytosis
c. Purulent synovial fluid present in a single, swollen joint
d. Presence of many antibodies in the blood
29. Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout?
a. A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
b. Severe hypercalcemia
c. Mild trauma to the toes
d. Development of a tophus
30. Where does inflammation usually begin in an individual with ankylosing spondylitis?
a. Costovertebral joints with progression down the spine
b. Cervical and thoracic vertebrae, causing kyphosis
c. Sacroiliac joints with progression up the spine
d. Peripheral joints and then proceeds to the vertebrae
31. What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
a. Damage to the spinal nerves and loss of function
b. Frequent fractures of long bones
c. Impaired heart function
d. Rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
32. Which statement applies to menisci?
a. They are found in the hip joints.
b. They are secretory membranes in joints.
c. They prevent excessive movement of joints.
d. They are found in the shoulder joint.
33. Which factors delay healing of bone fractures?
a. Lack of movement of the bone
b. Prolonged inflammation and ischemia
c. Presence of osteomyelitis
d. Close approximation of bone ends
34. What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
a. Additional ischemia in the broken bone
b. Nonunion or malunion of the fracture
c. Pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
d. Abscess and infection at a distant site
35. A sprain is a tear in a:
a. Ligament
b. Tendon
c. Skeletal muscle
d. Meniscus
36. Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:
a. Non–weight-bearing exercises.
b. Dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D.
c. Transplants of osteoblasts.
d. Avoidance of all hormones.
37. What is the distinguishing feature of primary fibromyalgia syndrome?
a. Joint pain and stiffness throughout the body
b. Degeneration and atrophy of skeletal muscles in back and lower limbs
c. Localized areas of constant pain
d. Specific trigger points for pain and tenderness
38. Ewing’s sarcoma metastasizes at an early stage to the:
a. Brain
b. Liver
c. Lungs
d. Other bones
39. Immovable joints are called:
a. Amphiarthroses.
b. Synarthroses.
c. Diarthroses.
d. Synovial joints.
40. Rickets results from:
a. Excessive bone resorption by osteoclasts.
b. A deficit of vitamin D and phosphates.
c. Replacement of bone by fibrous tissue.
d. Hyperparathyroidism.
41. Paget’s disease often leads to which of the following?
a. A reduction in bone fractures
b. Decreased intracranial pressure
c. Cardiovascular disease
d. Disintegration of joint cartilage
42. Bones classified as “irregular” would include:
a. Skull bones
b. The mandible
c. Wrist bones
d. The femur
43. A dislocation is:
a. The tearing of a tendon in the joint.
b. The separation of bones in the joint with a loss of contact.
c. The twisting of a joint, causing excessive inflammation of the surrounding tissue.
d. The overstressing of ligaments, causing loss of elasticity.
44. A diagnostic test that measures the electrical charge of muscle contraction and can help differentiate muscle disorders from neurological disease is a/an:
a. Electromyogram
b. Arthroscopy
c. Radiograph
d. Comminuted fracture
45. The type of compound fracture in which there are multiple fracture lines and bone fragments is referred to as a/an:
a. Compression fracture
b. Greenstick fracture
c. Simple fracture
d. Comminuted fracture
46. Fluid-filled sacs composed of synovial membrane located between structures such as tendons and ligaments and act as additional cushions are called:
a. Articular capsules
b. Bursae
c. Synovial sacs
d. Hyaline chambers
Chapter 14
1. Through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain and spinal cord?
a. Between the double layers of the dura mater
b. In the subdural space
c. In the subarachnoid space
d. Through the arachnoid villi
2. Which of the following is the usual location of language centers?
a. Left hemisphere
b. Right hemisphere
c. Brainstem
d. Hypothalamus
3. What would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the left hemisphere?
a. Loss of hearing in both ears
b. Inability to understand what is hears
c. Loss of hearing in the left ear
d. Inability to determine the source of sound
4. Which of the following applies to the corticospinal tract?
a. It is an ascending tract
b. The nerve fibers conduct sensory impulses
c. It is an extrapyramidal tract
d. It is a pyramidal tract for efferent impulses
5. What is a major function of the limbic system?
a. Overall control of fluid balance
b. Required for logical thinking, reason, and decision making
c. Determines emotional responses
d. Responsible for artistic and musical talents
6. Where are 1-adrenergic receptors located?
a. Bronchiolar walls
b. Arteriolar walls
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Glands of the intestinal tract
7. What does a vegetative state refer to?
a. Depression of the reticular activating system (RAS) and inability to initiate action
b. Loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem function
c. Continuing intellectual function but inability to communicate or move
d. Disorientation and confusion with decreased responsiveness
8. Which of the following conditions is NOT part of the criteria for a declaration of “brain death”?
a. No activity on EEG
b. Absence of all reflexes
c. No spontaneous respirations
d. Presence of any head injury
9. What is the best definition of aphasia?
a. The inability to comprehend or express language appropriately
b. Difficulty swallowing
c. Loss of the visual field contralateral to the area of damage
d. The inability to articulate words clearly
10. What is an early indicator of increased intracranial pressure?
a. Papilledema
b. Bilateral fixed dilated pupils
c. Decreased responsiveness
d. Rapid heart rate
11. What is the rationale for vomiting in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure?
a. Chemoreceptors responding to changes in the blood
b. Pressure extending to spinal nerves
c. Pressure on the emetic center in the medulla
d. Stimuli to the hypothalamic center for hunger and thirst
12. What is the typical change in blood pressure in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure?
a. Erratic diastolic pressure
b. Decreasing systolic pressure
c. Systolic and diastolic pressures decreasing proportionately
d. Increasing pulse pressure
13. The largest category of primary malignant brain tumors that arise from cells in the central nervous system (CNS) are called:
a. Gliomas
b. Sarcomas
c. Lymphomas
d. Myelomas
14. Which of the following causes papilledema?
a. Increased pressure of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the optic disc
b. Increased intraocular pressure
c. Pressure on the oculomotor nerve
d. Pressure on the optic chiasm
15. What is the effect of an enlarging brain abscess on cardiovascular activity?
a. Increased heart rate and systemic vasodilation
b. Low blood pressure and irregular heart and respiratory rates
c. Systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rate
d. Immediate depression of the cardiac control centers
16. As intracranial pressure rises, the pupil of the eye, ipsilateral to the lesion, becomes dilated and unresponsive to light because of pressure on the:
a. Optic nerve
b. Peripheral nervous system (PSNS) fibers in cranial nerve III
c. Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) nerve to the eye
d. Occipital lobe
17. Which of the following characteristics indicates that the CSF is normal?
a. Cloudy and pale yellow color
b. Presence of erythrocytes
c. Presence of numerous leukocytes
d. Clear and colorless fluid
18. Which of the following statements is TRUE about malignant brain tumors?
a. Most brain tumors arise from malignant neurons.
b. Primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the CNS.
c. The blood-brain barrier prevents secondary brain tumors.
d. Brainstem tumors do not manifest signs until they are quite large.
19. Secondary brain tumors usually arise from:
a. Severe head trauma
b. Metastasized breast or lung tumors
c. Exposure to carcinogenic agents
d. Exposure to radiation
20. Why are focal or generalized seizures sometimes an early indication of a brain tumor?
a. Surrounding inflammation stimulates neurons to discharge spontaneously.
b. Malignant tumors cause alkalosis, exciting the CNS.
c. Systemic effects of the brain tumor may cause seizures.
d. Metabolic effects of cancer change blood chemistry to trigger seizures.
21. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)?
a. They usually cause necrosis and permanent brain damage.
b. They may be caused by rupture of an aneurysm or a damaged artery.
c. They usually indicate systemic hypertension.
d. They can warn of potential cerebrovascular accidents.
22. What is the probable source of an embolus causing a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
a. Right ventricle of the heart
b. Femoral vein
c. Common carotid artery
d. Pulmonary artery
23. Collateral circulation is most likely to be present when a CVA results from:
a. Rupture of a cerebral artery
b. An embolus
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Vasospasm in the cerebral circulation
24. All of the following apply to CVA EXCEPT:
a. The common cause is an atheroma with thrombus.
b. Maximum necrosis and infarction develop within several hours of onset.
c. Warning signs may appear with partial obstruction of the artery.
d. Increasing neurological deficits usually develop during the first few days.
25. Signs and symptoms of a stroke depend upon:
a. Location of obstruction, size of artery, and area affected
b. Duration of the blockage, distance from the heart, and type of obstruction
c. Health of the victim, area affected, and collateral circulation
d. Size of the obstruction, condition of the heart, and duration of blockage
26. In the weeks following CVA, why might some neurological function return?
a. Presence of collateral circulation
b. Immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion
c. Reduced inflammation in the area
d. Development of alternative neuronal pathways
27. Which of the following statements about berry aneurysms in the brain is NOT true?
a. They usually develop at points of bifurcation in the circle of Willis.
b. They are usually asymptomatic for many years.
c. CSF remains free of blood.
d. Following rupture, blood appears in the subarachnoid space.
28. In a case of bacterial meningitis, where does swelling and purulent exudate form?
a. In the pia mater, arachnoid, and surface of the entire brain
b. In the dura mater and epidural space
c. At the site of the injury or entry point of the microbes
d. Primarily around the spinal cord
29. What are significant signs of acute bacterial meningitis?
a. Severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia
b. Fatigue and lethargy, fever, and anorexia
c. Focal signs, such as progressive paralysis in a limb
d. Ascending paralysis beginning in the legs
30. In many types of encephalitis, such as St. Louis encephalitis, how are the viruses transmitted?
a. Carriers
b. Mosquito and tick bites
c. Respiratory droplet
d. Septic emboli in the circulation
31. All of the following apply to tetanus infection EXCEPT:
a. It is caused by an anaerobic, spore-forming bacillus
b. The exotoxin causes strong skeletal muscle spasms
c. Death usually results from respiratory failure
d. Signs of fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and paralysis
32. In cases of Guillain-Barré syndrome, what does the pathophysiology include?
a. Damage and loss of function in the motor neurons of the spinal cord and medulla
b. Encephalopathy, with disorientation, headache, and coma
c. Infection and inflammation of the motor cortex
d. Inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis
33. How does a depressed skull fracture cause brain damage?
a. A bone fragment penetrates and tears brain tissue.
b. A section of the skull is missing, leaving the brain unprotected.
c. A section of skull bone is displaced below the level of the skull, causing pressure on the brain.
d. Many fracture lines are present, causing instability.
e. The contrecoup injury is the cause of brain damage.
34. Following a head injury, what is the most likely cause of secondary damage to the brain?
a. Hematoma or infection
b. Laceration by foreign objects
c. Hypoxia or acidosis
d. Tearing of blood vessels as the brain rotates across the inside of the skull
35. An epidural hematoma is located between the:
a. Dura mater and the arachnoid mater
b. Dura mater and the skull
c. Arachnoid mater and the pia mater
d. Pia mater and the brain
36. What does the term otorrhea mean?
a. Bleeding from the nose
b. CSF leaking from the ear
c. Torn meninges but no skull fracture
d. Hemorrhage from the ear
37. Vertebral fractures are classified as:
a. Simple, compression, wedge, dislocation
b. Compound, open, closed, shattered
c. Complex, torsion, open, multiple
d. Pressure, complex, simple, variable
38. Following a spinal injury at C5, what is the expected effect during the period of spinal shock?
a. Spastic paralysis below the level of injury
b. Urinary incontinence
c. Labile body temperature
d. Increased sensation in the legs
39. Following an injury at L2 to L3, what would indicate recovery from spinal shock?
a. Spastic paraplegia
b. Urinary retention
c. Labile body temperature
d. Increased sensation in the legs
40. What are the signs of autonomic dysreflexia in a person with cervical spinal injury?
a. Unexpected drop in blood pressure and apnea
b. Sudden marked increase in blood pressure with bradycardia
c. Hyperreflexia in the arms and legs
d. Urinary and bowel incontinence
41. Expressive aphasia is most likely to result from damage to:
a. The left frontal lobe
b. The left temporal lobe
c. The right motor cortex
d. Wernicke’s area
42. What is the usual result of damage to the right occipital lobe?
a. Left eye is blind
b. Loss of left visual field
c. Right eye is blind
d. Visual loss in the medial half of each eye
43. How does the heart rate change as intracranial pressure increases?
a. Rate decreases
b. Rate increases
c. No change in rate
d. Irregular heart rate
44. Which statement best describes herniation resulting from increased intracranial pressure?
a. Movement of brain tissue into ventricles
b. Movement of brain stem upward
c. Pushing of excess CSF and blood down around the spinal cord
d. Displacement of brain tissue downward toward the spinal cord
45. Which type of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) has the poorest prognosis?
a. CVA caused by thrombus
b. Hemorrhagic CVA
c. Embolic CVA
d. No difference among types
46. Which of the following factors predispose(s) an individual to a CVA?
a. Hypertension
b. Smoking cigarettes
c. History of coronary artery disease
d. Diabetes mellitus
47. What are the significant early signs of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm?
a. Impaired speech and muscle weakness
b. Severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia
c. Abnormal sensations and tremors
d. Vomiting and visual abnormalities
48. The stroke scale used to rapidly diagnose a stroke includes:
a. Capacity for speech, level of consciousness, motor skills, eye movements.
b. Motor skills, spatial awareness, time awareness, facial recognition.
c. Short-term memory, cognitive skills, speech, name recognition.
d. Hand-eye coordination, problem solving, ability to stand or walk, consciousness.
49. With regard to meningitis, choose the correct combination of microbe and the age group commonly affected.
a. E. coli: elderly
b. H. influenzae: neonate
c. N. meningitides: children and youth
d. S. pneumoniae: young children
50. Which of the following statements applies to a lumbar puncture?
a. It is usually performed at L3-L4.
b. Fluid is withdrawn from the epidural space.
c. It can be used to confirm any diagnosis.
d. The tissue seals up immediately after puncture.
51. Which signs are indicative of post-polio syndrome?
a. Progressive spastic paralysis
b. Ascending flaccid paralysis
c. Progressive fatigue and weakness
d. Increasing numbness and paresthesias
52. Which of the following does NOT apply to Reye’s syndrome?
a. There is no permanent damage in the body
b. It is precipitated by a combination of viral infection and administration of acetylsalicylic acid (ASA).
c. Cerebral edema develops.
d. Liver damage is common.
53. Which type of fracture typically occurs at the base of the skull?
a. Depressed
b. Contrecoup
c. Comminuted
d. Basilar
54. The primary reason for seizures frequently occurring with head injuries is:
a. Presence of blood irritates the neurons.
b. Otorrhea or rhinorrhea changes intracranial pressure.
c. Inflammatory response causes general hypoxia.
d. CNS is depressed
55. Brain injury where the brain is injured when it bounces off of the skull due to sudden acceleration or deceleration is referred to as a/an:
a. Linear fracture
b. Contusion
c. Basilar injury
d. Contrecoup injury
56. The rabies virus is usually transmitted by:
a. Respiratory droplets
b. Insects such as mosquitos
c. Bites from infected animals
d. The fecal-oral route
57. Common manifestations of rabies infection include:
a. Headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing.
b. Difficulty walking and coordinating movements.
c. Decreased sensitivity to sound and touch.
d. Vomiting, liver and kidney damage.
58. Which statement is TRUE about tetanus infection?
a. It is caused by a virus
b. Infection usually develops in deep puncture wounds
c. It causes flaccid skeletal muscles, impairing mobility
d. It affects peripheral nerves initially in the legs and feet
59. Which of the following impairments results from infection by the polio virus?
a. Pain and paresthesia in a cranial nerve or dermatome
b. Loss of motor and sensory function in the peripheral nerves
c. Inflammation and increased intracranial pressure
d. Loss of function of motor neurons of the spinal cord and medulla
60. Herpes zoster can be identified by a typical:
a. Unilateral rash and pain along a cranial nerve or dermatome
b. Weakness and muscle atrophy in the legs
c. Ascending paralysis commencing in the legs
d. Skeletal muscle spasms in the face and neck
61. Which of the following conditions is marked by focal signs?
a. Meningitis
b. Brain abscess
c. Encephalitis
d. Intracerebral hemorrhage
62. Typical signs of a TIA include:
a. Rapidly increasing intracranial pressure
b. Loss of consciousness
c. Transient muscle weakness in a hand or leg
d. Headache, photophobia, and nuchal rigidity
63. In cases of noncommunicating hydrocephalus, why does excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) accumulate?
a. Absorption of CSF through the arachnoid villi is impaired.
b. Excessive amounts of CSF are produced in the ventricles.
c. An obstruction is present in the aqueduct of Sylvius or other channel.
d. Flow around the spinal cord is blocked.
64. All of the following are typical signs of hydrocephalus in the neonate EXCEPT:
a. Enlarged head with bulging fontanels
b. Vomiting, headache, and paralysis
c. Irritability and feeding difficulties
d. Eyes turned downward with sclerae showing above the pupils
65. The best description of a myelomeningocele is:
a. Asymptomatic failure of the posterior spinous processes of the vertebrae to fuse.
b. Herniation of the meninges through a vertebral defect.
c. Herniation of the meninges, CSF, and spinal cord or nerves through a vertebral defect.
d. Herniation of brain tissue through a defect in the cranium.
66. How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?
a. Prenatally by ultrasound or detection of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in maternal blood or amniotic fluid
b. Only after birth by direct observation of the sac
c. After birth when the sac herniates as CSF builds up
d. Only with a spinal X-ray
67. What characteristic is common to all individuals with cerebral palsy?
a. Some loss of cognitive function
b. One or more types of seizure
c. Serious multiple communication difficulties
d. Some degree of motor disability
68. Which of the following applies to cerebral palsy?
a. Nonprogressive brain damage to the fetus or neonate
b. A genetic defect affecting metabolism and causing degeneration in the neurons
c. A developmental error during early growth of the peripheral nervous system
d. A chromosomal defect resulting in abnormalities in many body structures
69. Which of the following is characteristic of generalized seizures?
a. The localization of the seizure activity
b. The uncontrolled discharge of neurons in both hemispheres
c. Seizures that persist for several hours
d. Loss of consciousness and all motor function
70. From the following, choose the two events (in correct sequence) that immediately follow the aura during a tonic-clonic event:
a. Prodromal signs, then the clonic stage
b. Clonic stage, then the tonic stage
c. Loss of consciousness, then the tonic stage
d. Loss of consciousness and cessation of respiration
71. What does the clonic stage of a seizure consist of?
a. A sudden strong skeletal muscle contraction and rigidity of trunk and limbs
b. A cry and contraction of abdominal and thoracic muscles
c. Alternating contractions and relaxation of skeletal muscles
d. Cessation of all skeletal muscle activity
72. How would a seizure consisting of bizarre or inappropriate activity be classified?
a. Absence seizure
b. Psychomotor seizure
c. Focal seizure
d. Jacksonian seizure
73. Which of the following is characteristic of multiple sclerosis?
a. Remissions and exacerbations
b. Predictable pattern of progression in all patients
c. Onset in men and women more than 60 years of age
d. Full recovery of function during remissions
74. Which statement does NOT apply to the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis?
a. Demyelination of axons
b. It affects the brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves
c. It affects motor, sensory, and autonomic fibers
d. Progressive random degeneration of peripheral nerves
75. Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?
a. Paralysis of the lower body, impaired cognitive function
b. Areas of numbness, weakness in the legs, visual problems
c. Sensory deficit in the legs and trunk, memory loss, urinary incontinence
d. Tremors, speech impairment, hearing loss
76. Which of the following applies to Parkinson’s disease?
a. Usually develops in men and women over 60 years of age.
b. There is no apparent genetic component.
c. The majority of cases are predisposed by intake of antipsychotic medications.
d. It rarely develops in women
77. What is the pathophysiological change in Parkinson’s disease?
a. Degeneration of motor fibers in the pyramidal tracts
b. Excess secretion of stimulatory neurotransmitters in the CNS
c. Degeneration of the basal nuclei with a deficit of dopamine
d. Deficit of acetylcholine and degeneration of the motor cortex in the frontal lobe
78. Which of the following are common early manifestations of Parkinson’s disease?
a. Tremors at rest in the hands and repetitive motion of the hands
b. Extreme weakness in the legs and spastic movements in the arms
c. Visual deficits and speech impairment
d. Loss of facial expressions and altered posture and gait
79. In which type of neuron is progressive degeneration occurring with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
a. Upper motor neurons
b. Upper and lower motor neurons
c. Motor and sensory neurons
d. Motor, sensory, and autonomic system neurons
80. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to myasthenia gravis?
a. The cholinergic receptors at the neuromuscular junctions are damaged.
b. It is an autoimmune disorder.
c. Muscle weakness and fatigue occur in the face and neck.
d. Dementia develops in the later stage.
81. Which statement applies to Huntington’s disease?
a. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
b. It is manifested in individuals by age 20 years.
c. It presents with choreiform movements in the upper body and decreased ability to concentrate.
d. It causes decreased levels of all neurotransmitters in the CNS.
82. What are the characteristic changes in the brain of a patient with Alzheimer’s disease?
a. Cortical atrophy with plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, impairing conduction
b. Increased acetylcholine (ACh) and decreased GABA and serotonin levels
c. Obstruction of many small arteries and arterioles throughout the cerebral cortex
d. Vacuoles forming in the neurons, rapidly destroying them
83. Which disease is associated with excessive dopamine secretion, decreased gray matter in the temporal lobes, and abnormal hippocampal cells in the brain?
a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
b. Schizophrenia
c. Panic disorder
d. Depression
84. In which disorders do biochemical abnormalities involving the neurotransmitters in the brain occur?
a. Bipolar disorder
b. Schizophrenia
c. Huntington’s disease
d. AIDS dementia
85. Which of the following are typical characteristics associated with schizophrenia?
a. Disorganized thought processes, short attention span, delusions
b. Lack of energy and motivation, poor concentration, insomnia
c. Hyperventilation, tachycardia, intense anxiety
d. Memory loss, mood swings, hostile behavior
86. What is the typical initial effect of a herniated intervertebral disc at the L4 to L5 level?
a. Back pain and weakness at waist level
b. Muscle weakness in both legs
c. Lower back pain radiating down the leg
d. Urinary incontinence
87. What causes a herniated intervertebral disc?
a. A tear in the nucleus pulposus
b. A protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosis
c. Displacement of the annulus fibrosis between the laminae
d. Failure of the spinous processes to restrict movement of the intervertebral disc
88. Which of the following dietary supplements has reduced the incidence of spina bifida in recent years?
a. Vitamin B6
b. Folic acid
c. Vitamins A and D
d. Zinc and magnesium
89. Which of the following is the most common cause of brain damage in children with cerebral palsy?
a. Hyperbilirubinemia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypoxia
d. Trauma
90. The ataxic form of cerebral palsy results from damage to the:
a. Cerebellum
b. Motor cortex
c. Basal nuclei
d. Pyramidal tracts
91. Which of the following is used to confirm the diagnosis of, and classify, seizures?
a. Characteristics of the aura
b. Presence of precipitating factors
c. Electroencephalogram
d. Changes in the characteristics of cerebrospinal fluid
92. Which statement does NOT apply to status epilepticus?
a. Seizures are recurrent or continuous without full recovery between episodes.
b. Severe hypoxia and acidosis develop.
c. Person does not lose consciousness during seizure.
d. If the episode persists, there may be additional brain damage.
93. Which type of seizure commonly occurs in children?
a. Absence
b. Tonic-clonic
c. Focal
d. Complex partial
94. All of the following may precipitate a seizure EXCEPT:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hypoventilation
c. Brain abscess
d. High fever in young children
95. Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of advanced Parkinson’s disease?
a. Difficulty chewing and swallowing
b. Urinary retention
c. Loss of vision
d. Orthostatic hypotension
96. Which of the following is a typical early sign of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
a. Impaired ventilation
b. Cognitive impairment
c. Poor control of eye movement
d. Weakness and muscle atrophy in upper limbs
97. Which of the following classes of drugs may provide temporary improvement in cases of myasthenia gravis?
a. Skeletal muscle relaxants
b. Dopamine replacement drugs
c. Anticholinesterase agents
d. GABA replacement drugs
98. Which of the following are typical early signs of Alzheimer’s disease?
a. Behavioral changes
b. Reduced ability to reason and problem solve
c. Decreased verbal responses
d. Urinary incontinence
99. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a common contributing factor to AIDS dementia?
a. Invasion of the central nervous system by HIV
b. Development of arteriosclerosis
c. Secondary toxoplasmosis infection
d. Development of cerebral lymphoma
100. Communicating hydrocephalus causes increased intracranial pressure because of:
a. Atresia at the foramen magnum
b. Failure of the subarachnoid to absorb CSF
c. Obstruction in the lumbar area of the spinal cord
d. Scar tissue from encephalitis blocking flow od CSF
101. Failure of the spinous processes to fuse, but without herniation of the meninges, is called:
a. Spina bifida occulta
b. Meningocele
c. Myelomeningocele
d. Encephalocele
102. Which statement is TRUE about amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
a. Cognitive function remains normal
b. ALS affects primarily young women
c. Sensory neurons are damaged initially
d. Cause of death is usually cardiac arrhythmia
103. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by:
a. Inheritance of an autosomal dominant trait.
b. Infection in the brain by HIV.
c. An autoimmune reaction that damages nerve receptors.
d. Infection in the brain by a prion.
104. Huntington’s disease is diagnosed by:
a. Urinalysis
b. Motor skills test
c. DNA analysis
d. Antibody agglutination test
105. Which statement is TRUE about depression?
a. It is classified as a mood disorder.
b. Episodes of intense fear are recurrent.
c. It is marked by increased appetite and libido.
d. It is not a common condition.
