Homework answers / question archive / Chapter 14 1)Beiersdorf is working to have their Nivea for Men brand introduced and publicized in America in order to _____

Chapter 14 1)Beiersdorf is working to have their Nivea for Men brand introduced and publicized in America in order to _____

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Chapter 14

1)Beiersdorf is working to have their Nivea for Men brand introduced and publicized in America in order to _____.

A) fulfill a governmental mandate

B) have men recognize a problem with respect to facial care

C) market its new home hair coloring system

D) increase brand awareness

E) none of the above

2. What is the first stage of the consumer decision process?

A) information search

B) problem recognition

C) alternative evaluation

D) purchase

E) postpurchase behavior

3. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding consumer decisions and the consumer decision process?

A) The decision process model provides useful insight into all types of consumer purchases.

B) Consumer decisions are frequently the result of a single problem.

C) Consumer decisions are rational and functional; otherwise they do not involve decisions per se.

D) Some consumer decisions result from the convergence of several problems.

E) Once the decision process begins, it may evolve and become more complex with multiple goals.

4. Which of the following is a type of consumer decision making discussed in your text?

A) nominal decision making

B) limited decision making

C) extended decision making

D) b and c

E) a, b, and c

5. Which of the following is NOT a type of consumer decision making discussed in your text?

A) nominal decision making

B) extended decision making

C) complex decision making

D) limited decision making

E) all of the above are types of decision making

6. The level of concern for, or interest in, the purchase process triggered by the need to consider a particular purchase is known as _____.

A) personal involvement

B) product involvement

C) purchase involvement

D) enduring involvement

E) activated involvement

7. Blake doesn't much care about cars but is engaging in a substantial amount of information search about cars since he is about to buy a new car. In terms of involvement, Blake is _____.

A) high in product involvement; low in purchase involvement

B) high in value-expressive involvement; low in product involvement

C) high in product involvement; high in purchase involvement

D) low in product involvement; low in purchase involvement

E) low in product involvement; high in purchase involvement

8. Very high levels of purchase involvement tend to produce _____.

A) extended decision making

B) nominal decision making

C) affective decision making

D) limited decision making

E) none of the above

9. Emma noticed that she was almost out of gas, so she pulled into the nearest gas station and filled up her tank. Emma's decision on which gas to purchase is characterized by _____.

A) a high level of cognitive processing

B) a low level of purchase involvement

C) limited decision making

D) extended decision making

E) a high level of affective processing

10. Which type of consumer decision making only includes the stages of problem recognition, limited internal information search, purchase, and limited postpurchase behavior?

A) nominal decision making

B) normal decision making

C) limited decision making

D) extended decision making

E) simple decision making

11. Which type of consumer decision making does NOT include alternative evaluation?

A) routine decision making

B) nominal decision making

C) extended decision making

D) simple decision making

E) limited decision making

12. Which type of consumer decision making includes only a limited internal information search and no external search for information?

A) routine decision making

B) nominal decision making

C) extended decision making

D) simple decision making

E) limited decision making

13. Which type of consumer decision making includes the evaluation of only a few attributes, simple decision rules, and few alternatives?

A) routine decision making

B) nominal decision making

C) extended decision making

D) simple decision making

E) limited decision making

14. Which type of consumer decision making involves the evaluation of many attributes and alternatives and employs complex decision rules?

A) routine decision making

B) nominal decision making

C) extended decision making

D) simple decision making

E) limited decision making

15. Which type of decision making process in effect involves no decision per se?

A) simple decision making

B) nominal decision making

C) extended decision making

D) automatic decision making

E) default decision making

16. Nominal decision making is sometimes referred to as _____.

A) habitual decision making

B) routine decision making

C) simple decision making

D) automatic decision making

E) default decision making

17. A completely nominal decision does not even include consideration of _____.

A) information

B) problem recognition

C) the “do not purchase” alternative

D) purchase evaluation

E) all of the above

18. Nominal decisions can be broken into which two distinct categories?

A) brand loyal decisions and repeat purchase decisions

B) primary decisions and secondary decisions

C) high involvement decisions and low involvement decisions

D) expensive decisions and inexpensive decisions

E) first purchase decisions and repeat purchase decisions

19. Which type of nominal decision is characterized by a fairly high degree of product involvement but a low degree of purchase involvement?

A) routine decision

B) inexpensive decision

C) primary decision

D) brand loyal decision

E) low visibility decision

20. Brad was out of soft drinks in his dorm room, so he went to the store and purchased Coke. This is the brand he always buys, and he would not even consider purchasing another brand. Which type of nominal decision does this illustrate?

A) routine decision

B) repeat purchase decision

C) primary decision

D) brand loyal decision

E) low visibility decision

21. Which type of nominal decision is characterized by a consumer believing that all brands within a given product category are about the same and not attaching much importance to the product category or purchase?

A) routine decision

B) repeat purchase decision

C) secondary decision

D) inconsequential decision

E) indifferent decision

22. Rita is doing her family's grocery shopping and purchases ice cream. She's purchased Blue Bell ice cream before and purchases it again. She's not committed to this brand; it's just that she and her family like it. Which type of nominal decision is this?

A) inconsequential decision

B) indifferent decision

C) automatic decision

D) repeat purchase decision

E) secondary decision

23. Which type of decision making involves internal and external search, few alternatives, simple decision rules on a few attributes, and little postpurchase evaluation?

A) nominal decision making

B) routine decision making

C) limited decision making

D) partial decision making

E) extended decision making

24. Which type of decision making covers the middle ground between nominal and extended decision making?

A) limited decision making

B) partial decision making

C) mid-range decision making

D) modified decision making

E) internal decision making

25. Marla is bored with her cell phone. She wants to purchase a new one that has cool ring tones and can take a picture. She's not going to conduct a big search for a new phone as she's just going to consider a few others. Which type of decision making is this?

A) nominal decision making

B) limited decision making

C) extensive decision making

D) extended decision making

E) truncated decision making

26. Which type of decision making involves an extensive internal and external information search followed by a complex evaluation of multiple alternatives and significant postpurchase evaluation?

A) limited decision making

B) nominal decision making

C) extended decision making

D) complex decision making

E) complete decision making

27. The Smith's oldest daughter, Olivia, is a senior in high school. She has all “A's” and scored a 34 on the ACT. She is president of the debate team and the national honor society as well as a member of the cheerleading squad. Olivia wants to attend medical school, so both she and her parents are very concerned about which undergraduate school she attends. They have spent countless hours on the Internet examining universities, and they have already visited five campuses. For Olivia and her parents, which type of decision making does this represent?

A) limited decision making

B) nominal decision making

C) extended decision making

D) complex decision making

E) complete decision making

28. _____ is the result of a discrepancy between a desired state and an actual state that is sufficient to arouse and activate the decision process?

A) Alternative evaluation

B) Problem recognition

C) Information search

D) Purchase

E) Postpurchase evaluation

29. Tess noticed that she was almost out of shampoo. Which stage of the decision process will this observation activate?

A) problem recognition

B) information search

C) alternative evaluation

D) postpurchase evaluation

E) dissonance

30. A(n) _____ is the way an individual perceives his or her feelings and situation to be at the present time.

A) current state

B) actual state

C) desired state

D) self-concept

E) self-assessment

31. Bessie is at the grocery store and is trying to remember some of the things she needs to buy. She is in the cleaning products aisle looking at the floor cleaning products. She's pretty sure she has another bottle left at home, so she doesn't purchase another. Bessie's perception of her current situation regarding this product reflects her ____.

A) current state

B) desired state

C) actual state

D) self-concept

E) self-assessment

32. A(n) _____ is the way an individual wants to feel or be at the present time.

A) current state

B) desired state

C) actual state

D) ideal state

E) idolized state

33. Candice is on a diet and wants to lose 10 pounds. She wants to be thin right now, which represents her _____.

A) actual state

B) ideal state

C) healthy state

D) desired state

E) future state

34. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding problem recognition?

A) Problem recognition is the first stage in the consumer decision process.

B) Only when the desired state is greater than the actual state will a problem exist.

C) Problem recognition is the result of a discrepancy between a desired state and an actual state that is sufficient to arouse and activate the decision process.

D) Without recognition of a problem, there is no need for a decision.

E) all of the above are true regarding problem recognition

35. Which of the following drives problem recognition?

A) the consumer's perception of the actual state

B) objective reality of the consumer's actual state

C) the amount of information available

D) the number of alternatives from which to choice

E) others' perception of an individual's actual state

36. The level of one's desire to resolve a particular problem depends on which factors?

A) the consumer's perception of his or her actual state and the desired state

B) the length of time required to make a decision and the level of purchase involvement

C) the magnitude of the discrepancy between the desired and actual states and the relative importance of the problem

D) the degree of brand loyalty and the amount of time required to make a decision

E) the direction of the discrepancy between the desired and actual states and the relative importance of the purchase

37. Relative importance of a problem is determined by which of the following?

A) how critical the problem is to the maintenance of the consumer's desired lifestyle

B) how critical the problem is to others

C) the magnitude of the discrepancy between the desired and actual states

D) the magnitude of the discrepancy between the actual self-concept and the ideal self-concept

E) the level of risk associated with the decision process

38. What are the types of consumer problems?

A) latent and manifest

B) primary and secondary

C) low involvement and high involvement

D) active and inactive

E) actual and perceived

39. Which type of consumer problem is one the consumer is aware of or will become aware of in the normal course of events?

A) latent

B) manifest

C) active

D) inactive

E) blatant

40. Many elderly consumers have problems with arthritis. This painful condition makes it almost impossible for them to open jars or medicine containers because the joints in their fingers are so stiff. Which type of consumer problem is this?

A) latent

B) manifest

C) active

D) inactive

E) blatant

41. Which type of consumer problem is one on which the consumer is not aware?

A) latent

B) manifest

C) active

D) inactive

E) blatant

42. The Martin's home has potentially unsafe levels of radon, but they have no idea because it is odorless and they have not been feeling any ill effects from it. In fact, several homes have this problem and the owners are not aware of it, and they may never become aware of it unless testing is done. What type of consumer problem is this?

A) latent

B) manifest

C) active

D) inactive

E) dangerous

43. Which of the following statements is true regarding active and inactive consumer problems?

A) Active problems require the marketer only to convince consumers that its brand is the superior solution.

B) Active and inactive problems do not require different marketing strategies.

C) An active problem is one of which the consumer is not aware.

D) Even though a consumer is aware of it, an inactive problem is one that he or she has no desire to rectify.

E) Active problems are more serious than inactive ones.

44. What has research revealed regarding consumers' variety-seeking behavior?

A) Once a consumer tries another brand, there is a high probably that he or she will not return to the previous brand.

B) Consumers usually switch to options within the same brand.

C) Consumers are unwilling to switch to options within the brand.

D) Consumers are more likely to become bored on sensory attributes such as taste.

E) Consumers are more likely to become bored with non-sensory attributes such as brand name.

45. James likes to eat a strawberry Pop-Tart for breakfast before school. After about two weeks of this, he starts to get bored with that and switches to waffles. James is displaying which type of behavior?

A) variety-seeking

B) brand-switching

C) entertainment

D) limited search

E) extended search

46. Which of the following is a nonmarketing factor affecting problem recognition?

A) social status

B) past decisions

C) motives

D) situation

E) all of the above

47. Which nonmarketing factor affects a consumer's desired state?

A) culture/subculture

B) normal depletion

C) product/brand performance

D) availability of products

E) all of the above

48. All EXCEPT which of the following nonmarketing factor affects consumers' desired state?

A) reference group

B) household characteristics

C) normal depletion

D) financial status/expectations

E) culture

49. Which of the following is a nonmarketing factor affecting consumers' actual state?

A) social status

B) household characteristics

C) product/brand performance

D) motives

E) culture

50. All EXCEPT which of the following nonmarketing factors affect a consumer's actual state?

A) past decisions

B) normal depletion

C) product/brand performance

D) reference group

E) availability of products

51.Which of the following is a concern marketing managers have related to problem recognition?

A) discovering consumer problems

B) developing the marketing mix to solve consumer problems

C) helping consumers recognize problems

D) suppressing problem recognition among consumers

E) all of the above

52. What is the most common approach to discovering consumer problems?

A) activity analysis

B) intuition

C) product analysis

D) problem analysis

E) qualitative research

53. Rudy is a product category manager for a major consumer packaged goods manufacturer. Part of his job requires that he analyze a given product category and logically determine where improvements could be made. Rudy has determined several consumer problems this way. Which of the following best describes how Rudy uncovers consumer problems?

A) activity analysis

B) intuition

C) product analysis

D) problem analysis

E) qualitative research

54. Which research technique asks relatively large numbers of individuals about the problems they are facing?

A) survey

B) focus group

C) content analysis

D) laddering

E) perceptual mapping

55. Which type of research technique gathers 8 to 12 similar individuals (e.g., working mothers) brought together to discuss a particular topic?

A) survey

B) focus group

C) content analysis

D) laddering

E) perceptual mapping

56. Mickey and his three roommates were asked to participate in a research study. They arrived and were seated in a room with about 8 other guys their age. Then the researcher started asking them questions about their sporting activities, but he let them talk pretty freely. Mickey and the others participated in which type of research technique?

A) survey

B) focus group

C) content analysis

D) laddering

E) perceptual mapping

57. The person present during a focus group discussion that keeps the discussion moving and focused on the topic is called a(n) _____.

A) coordinator

B) director

C) moderator

D) initiator

E) interpreter

58. Which of the following is an approach to problem identification?

A) activity analysis

B) product analysis

C) problem analysis

D) emotion research

E) all of the above

59. Which approach to problem identification focuses on a particular activity such as lawn maintenance?

A) activity analysis

B) product analysis

C) problem analysis

D) human factors research

E) emotion research

60. Kim was participating in a focus group in which the discussion centered around the participants' problems encountered while taking care of their hair. Which approach to problem identification is this?

A) activity analysis

B) product analysis

C) problem analysis

D) human factors research

E) emotion research

61. Which approach to problem recognition examines the purchase or use of a particular product or brand?

A) activity analysis

B) product analysis

C) problem analysis

D) human factors research

E) emotion research

62. A manufacturer of a digital music player asked several consumers the problems associated with using these types of products. Several consumers said that they had trouble downloading music onto their computers and then onto their music players. Which approach to problem recognition is this marketer using?

A) activity analysis

B) product analysis

C) problem analysis

D) human factors research

E) emotion research

63. Which approach to problem recognition starts with a problem and asks respondents to indicate which activities, products, or brands are associated with (or perhaps could eliminate) those problems?

A) activity analysis

B) product analysis

C) problem analysis

D) human factors research

E) emotion research

64. A food manufacturer asked a group of working mothers to think about the problem of serving nutritious meals to their families given their time constraints and to indicate what activities, products, or brands are associated with or perhaps could eliminate those problems. This manufacturer is using which approach to problem recognition?

A) activity analysis

B) product analysis

C) problem analysis

D) human factors research

E) emotion research

65. Which approach to problem recognition attempts to determine human capabilities in areas such as vision, strength, response time, flexibility, and fatigue and the effect on these capabilities of lighting, temperature, and sound?

A) activity analysis

B) product analysis

C) problem analysis

D) human factors research

E) emotion research

66. The manager of a bank branch is concerned about the number of mistakes the tellers were making, so he started manipulating different aspects of the environment in the bank to see what effect each has on the tellers' performance. He examined factors such as the lighting, temperature, and the volume of the music playing in the bank. Which approach to problem recognition is this manager using?

A) activity analysis

B) product analysis

C) problem analysis

D) human factors research

E) emotion research

67. Which approach to problem recognition examines emotions associated with certain problems?

A) activity analysis

B) product analysis

C) problem analysis

D) human factors research

E) emotion research

68. One retailer asked a group of consumers the types of emotions they experience in both positive and negative retail situations. The purpose of this research was to uncover consumer reactions to various situations so that clerks could be trained to respond appropriately. Which approach to problem recognition is this?

A) activity analysis

B) product analysis

C) problem analysis

D) human factors research

E) emotion research

69. Two basic approaches to causing problem recognition are _____.

A) generic problem recognition and selective problem recognition

B) active problem recognition and inactive problem recognition

C) actual problem recognition and desired problem recognition

D) perceived problem recognition and objective problem recognition

E) primary problem recognition and secondary problem recognition

70. Which problem recognition involves a discrepancy that a variety of brands within a product category can reduce?

A) generic problem recognition

B) selective problem recognition

C) active problem recognition

D) inactive problem recognition

E) primary problem recognition

71. Campbell's soup used several advertising campaigns that stressed the benefits of soup in general. For example, one tagline used was “Soup is good food,” and another was “Never underestimate the power of soup.” Which type of problem recognition was Campbell's attempting to stimulate?

A) generic problem recognition

B) selective problem recognition

C) active problem recognition

D) inactive problem recognition

E) primary problem recognition

72. Which condition is appropriate to attempt to influence generic problem recognition?

A) It is early in the product life cycle.

B) The firm has a high percentage of the market.

C) External search after problem recognition is apt to be limited.

D) It is an industry-wide cooperative effort.

E) all of the above

73. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate condition to attempt to influence generic problem recognition?

A) It is early in the product life cycle.

B) The firm has a small percentage of the market.

C) External search after problem recognition is apt to be limited.

D) It is an industry-wide cooperative effort.

E) all of the above are appropriate conditions to attempt to influence generic problem recognition

74. Which problem recognition involves a discrepancy that only one brand can solve?

A) generic problem recognition

B) selective problem recognition

C) active problem recognition

D) inactive problem recognition

E) primary problem recognition

75. An advertisement for Topol toothpaste, which is targeted at smokers and coffee and wine drinkers, stresses how this is the only brand that can remove the stains associated with these consumption behaviors. Which type of problem recognition is this marketer attempting to stimulate?

A) generic problem recognition

B) selective problem recognition

C) active problem recognition

D) inactive problem recognition

E) primary problem recognition

76. A firm that introduces a new line of non-fat snack food due to increasing consumer concern with health is _____.

A) activating problem recognition

B) reacting to problem recognition

C) suppressing problem recognition

D) triggering problem recognition

E) none of the above

77. Effective quality control and distribution and package inserts that assure the consumer of the wisdom of their purchase are attempts at _____.

A) responding to consumer problems

B) helping consumers recognize problems

C) discovering consumer problems

D) diverting consumers' attention away from problems

E) suppressing problem recognition

78. Problem recognition is the first stage of the consumer decision process.

79. If purchase involvement is high, then enduring product involvement will also be high.

80. The three types of decision making are rebuy, limited, and extended.

81. Nominal decision making is sometimes referred to as habitual decision making.

82. Two distinct categories of nominal decision making are brand loyal decisions and repeat purchase decisions.

83. Problem recognition is the result of a discrepancy between a desired state and an actual state that is sufficient to arouse and activate the decision process.

84. When a consumer's actual state is perceived as being greater than the desired state, recognition of a problem does not occur.

85. The level of one's desire to resolve a particular problem depends on two factors: the actual state and the desired state.

86. An latent problem is one of which the consumer is not aware.

87. A consumer's desired state can be influenced by previous decisions.

88. Variety-seeking behavior is a challenge to marketers because it means the consumers switch brands for reasons beyond a company's control.

89. One difficulty with using intuition alone to identify consumer problems is that it is a complex research technique that requires extensive training.

90. Approaches to discovering consumer problems include activity analysis, product analysis, problem analysis, human factors research, and emotion research.

91. Universal problem recognition involves a discrepancy that a variety of brands within a product category can reduce.

92. Attempts to influence generic problem recognition are appropriate for brands that have a high market share.

93. Firms attempt to cause selective problem recognition to gain or maintain market share.

Chapter 15

1. How has the Internet changed consumers' ability to search for information?

A) allows easy access to manufacturers' Web sites

B) allows easy access to other consumers

C) allows easy access to government agencies

D) expands the ability of marketers to provide information to consumers

E) all of the above

2. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding information search?

A) Consumers continually recognize problems and opportunities, so internal and external searches for information to solve these problems are ongoing processes.

B) Searching for information is free.

C) Information search involves mental as well as physical activities that consumers must perform.

D) The benefits of information search often outweigh the cost of search.

E) Consumers acquire a substantial amount of relevant information without deliberate search.

3. Once a problem is recognized, relevant information from long-term memory is used to determine if a satisfactory solution is known, what the characteristics of potential solutions are, what are appropriate ways to compare solutions, and so forth. This is referred to as _____.

A) internal search

B) external search

C) primary search

D) ongoing search

E) evoked search

4. Nakeisha wants to purchase some new make-up, but she wants something different from what she is currently using. Since she has experience with this product, she just thinks of the other products she has tried and decides to purchase one of those. Which type of information search has Nakeisha performed?

A) internal search

B) external search

C) primary search

D) secondary search

E) evoked search

5. Which type of search can involve independent sources, personal sources, marketer-based information, and product experience?

A) internal search

B) external search

C) primary search

D) secondary search

E) evoked search

6. Nathan is purchasing a new computer, so he asks his friends and family for help in selecting one. He also has searched the Internet and visited the Dell, Gateway, and IBM Web sites and has consulted Consumer Reports. Nathan is conducting which type of information search?

A) internal search

B) external search

C) primary search

D) secondary search

E) evoked search

7. If, in response to a problem, a consumer recalls a single, satisfactory solution, no further information search or evaluation may occur. The consumer purchases the recalled brand and _____ has occurred.

A) automatic decision making

B) limited decision making

C) nominal decision making

D) extended decision making

E) truncated decision making

8. Every winter, Laurie's skin becomes very dry and results in painful cracks in her skin on her fingers. Once this happens, Laurie remembers that Zim's Crack Cream works really well for this problem, so she stops at the store to pick some up. Which type of decision making has occurred?

A) automatic decision making

B) limited decision making

C) nominal decision making

D) extended decision making

E) truncated decision making

9. When a consumer notices a new product in a store because of the point-of-purchase display, reads about the attributes of the product and recalls an unresolved problem that this product will solve, and then purchases the product, _____ has occurred.

A) automatic decision making

B) limited decision making

C) nominal decision making

D) extended decision making

E) truncated decision making

10. Wendy was in Wal-Mart and noticed a display with baking items collected together and a little pad with recipes to tear off. She looked at the recipe and decided that this would make a nice dessert for Thanksgiving, so she purchased the products that were conveniently located on the display. Which type of decision making did Wendy undertake?

A) automatic decision making

B) limited decision making

C) nominal decision making

D) extended decision making

E) truncated decision making

11. For which type of decision making is external information search relatively important?

A) automatic decision making

B) limited decision making

C) nominal decision making

D) extended decision making

E) truncated decision making

12. Eric was in the store and started looking at riding lawn mowers. He didn't come to this store for the purpose of purchasing one, but he started considering it once he was there. However, he did not purchase one on that trip. Instead he went to other stores to look at their mowers, he asked his neighbor and his brother-in-law about their mowers, and he searched the Internet before he decided on the brand to purchase. Which type of decision making did Eric undertake?

A) automatic decision making

B) limited decision making

C) nominal decision making

D) extended decision making

E) truncated decision making

13. Deliberate external search that occurs in the absence of problem recognition and is done both to acquire information for possible later use and because the process itself is pleasurable is known as _____.

A) internal search

B) ongoing search

C) eternal search

D) continuous search

E) perpetual search

14. Barry is always searching information about wine. He reads Wine Spectator every month, has several books related to wine, visits wine-related Web sites frequently, and has visited several wine regions throughout the world. While he purchases wine frequently, he does not conduct this information search for just that reason. He just enjoys learning about wine. For Barry, his search for information about wine is a(n) _____.

A) internal search

B) ongoing search

C) eternal search

D) continuous search

E) perpetual search

15. A consumer decision requires information on which of the following?

A) The appropriate evaluative criteria for the solution of a problem.

B) The existence of various alternative solutions.

C) The performance level or characteristic of each alternative solution on each evaluative criterion.

D) a and b

E) a, b, and c

16. The desired features or characteristics required to meet a consumer's needs are his or her _____.

A) evoked set

B) evoked criteria

C) consideration criteria

D) evaluative criteria

E) evaluative set

17. Freddy is purchasing a new car, and he has decided that gas mileage, price, reliability, and styling are important to him. These attributes represent Freddy's _____.

A) evoked set

B) evoked criteria

C) consideration criteria

D) evaluative criteria

E) evaluative set

18. All of the brands that a consumer thinks of as potential solutions are known as the _____.

A) awareness set

B) evaluative criteria

C) alternative set

D) preferred set

E) consideration set

19. Karl and his wife are considering putting a built-in pool in their backyard. They were discussing who they could get to do it for them, and they realized they knew of five pool contractors in their city. These five pool contractors that they thought of as potential contractors for them represent their _____.

A) awareness set

B) evaluative criteria

C) alternative set

D) preferred set

E) consideration set

20. Which of the following is NOT a subcategory of the awareness set?

A) evoked set

B) purchase set

C) inert set

D) inept set

E) all of the above are subcategories of the awareness set

21. The brands or products one will evaluate for the solution of a particular consumer problem are called the _____.

A) evoked set

B) evaluative criteria

C) alternative set

D) preferred set

E) awareness set

22. Thomas is aware of several different brands of electric shavers, but he is only considering seriously three different brands. These three brands that Thomas is evaluating represent his _____.

A) evoked set

B) evaluative criteria

C) alternative set

D) preferred set

E) awareness set

23. The evoked set is also called the _____.

A) evaluative set

B) alternative set

C) awareness set

D) preferred set

E) consideration set

24. Brands that are found completely unworthy of further consideration are members of the _____.

A) evoked set

B) inept set

C) excluded set

D) inert set

E) discarded set

25. Darcy is considering the purchase of living room furniture. While there are several national-chain furniture stores in her city, she is not considering Haverty's because she's purchased furniture from this store before and has been dissatisfied. For Darcy, this furniture retailer is included in her _____.

A) evoked set

B) consideration set

C) inept set

D) excluded set

E) inert set

26. Brands for which a consumer is aware but basically indifferent toward compose his or her _____.

A) evoked set

B) consideration set

C) inept set

D) excluded set

E) inert set

27. Elaine is considering the purchase of a computer and is aware that Toshiba and HP are brands in this product category. However, she is basically indifferent toward them. These two brands represent Elaine's _____.

A) evoked set

B) consideration set

C) inept set

D) excluded set

E) inert set

28. To which set do alternatives the consumer does not know about belong?

A) inert set

B) inept set

C) unawareness set

D) unknown set

E) evoked set

29. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding appropriate alternatives?

A) An evoked set is those brands or products one will evaluate for the solution of a particular consumer problem.

B) The brand found completely unworthy of further consideration is a member of the inept set.

C) Marketing strategy that focuses only on creating awareness is adequate.

D) Brands for which a consumer is aware of but basically indifferent toward compose that consumer's inert set.

E) Alternatives the consumer does not know about compose the unawareness set.

30. Which of the following is a primary source of information available to consumers?

A) memory

B) personal sources

C) independent sources

D) marketing sources

E) all of the above

31. Past searches, prior personal experiences, and prior low-involvement learning are examples of which source of information?

A) memory

B) personal sources

C) independent sources

D) marketing sources

E) experiential sources

32. Karen is going to the mall to purchase new shoes. Based on her prior experience with Nine West and her positive attitude toward them, she plans on looking at the Nine West store first. Her decision to visit the Nine West store is based on which source of information?

A) memory

B) personal sources

C) independent sources

D) marketing sources

E) experiential sources

33. Friends, family, and others are examples of which source of information?

A) memory

B) personal sources

C) independent sources

D) marketing sources

E) experiential sources

34. Kasi is seeking the advice of her parents in her decision on which college to attend. Which source of information is Kasi using?

A) memory

B) personal sources

C) independent sources

D) marketing sources

E) experiential sources

35. Magazines, consumer groups, and government agencies represent which source of information?

A) memory

B) personal sources

C) independent sources

D) marketing sources

E) experiential sources

36. Jon needed to purchase new tires for his SUV. He consulted Consumer Reports to see how the various brands were rated. Jon consulted which type of information source?

A) memory

B) personal sources

C) independent sources

D) marketing sources

E) experiential sources

37. Sales personnel, Web sites, and advertising represent which type of information source?

A) memory

B) personal sources

C) independent sources

D) marketing sources

E) experiential sources

38. Stephanie and her husband are considering the purchase of a 52" plasma television. They have visited several manufacturers' Web sites, looked at the ads in the Sunday newspaper, and have spoken with sales people at several electronics stores. Which source of information are they using?

A) memory

B) personal sources

C) independent sources

D) marketing sources

E) experiential sources

39. Which source of information includes inspection or product trial?

A) memory

B) personal sources

C) independent sources

D) marketing sources

E) experiential sources

40. Lane is test driving several models of automobiles to help him decide which one to purchase. Which source of information does this represent?

A) memory

B) personal sources

C) independent sources

D) marketing sources

E) experiential sources

41. Which information source is NOT actively acquired by consumers?

A) past searches

B) personal experience

C) low-involvement learning

D) independent groups

E) marketer information

42. Susan actually knows quite a bit about some product categories that she doesn't actively seek out information concerning and doesn't even own. Which of the following is the most likely means by which she obtained this information?

A) past searches

B) personal experience

C) low-involvement learning

D) experiential sources

E) high-involvement learning

43. Research shows that the most common use of the Internet is _____.

A) searching for a map or driving directions

B) getting news

C) buying a product

D) using e-mail

E) checking the weather

44. Which of the following is true regarding the Internet as a source of information?

A) Online information is expected.

B) Online information boosts offline sales.

C) Online sources are viewed as valuable.

D) Online sources reduce a salesperson's role.

E) all of the above

45. Which of the following is NOT a research finding regarding the Internet as an information source?

A) Online information is expected.

B) Online information boosts offline sales.

C) Online sources are viewed as valuable.

D) Online sources reduce a salesperson's role.

E) Over 90% of Americans use the Internet to research a product/service before buying it.

46. Which demographic characteristic describes the greatest percentage of U.S. adult Internet users?

A) Women

B) Black, non-Hispanic

C) 65+ years of age

D) Household income of $75,000+

E) Rural

47. Research has shown that most of the online search leading up to a purchase was _____.

A) brand only

B) generic

C) brand-item

D) retail

E) price-related

48. Consumers conducting a generic search in an Internet search engine use which type of terms?

A) retailer-related terms

B) brand-related terms

C) general product-related terms

D) brand- plus product-related terms

E) price-related terms

49. Bob is searching the Internet for information on digital cameras, so he types in the words “digital camera” in Google. Which type of search is Bob conducting?

A) brand only

B) generic

C) brand-item

D) retail

E) price-related

50. Services that aid consumers in their search and decision making on the Internet are known as _____.

A) bots

B) worms

C) viruses

D) seekers

E) minimizers

51. Amelia wanted to purchase a nice watch for her husband, but she was overwhelmed by the amount of information available on the Internet for this product. She visited one Web site that offered a service that would do the searching and comparisons for her, so she decided to use it. The service Amelia used is referred to as a(n) _____.

A) minimizer

B) shopping bot

C) search engine

D) personal data assistant

E) Internet organizer

52. Which of the following is NOT a major issue marketers must deal with concerning the Internet's role in information search and decision making?

A) How can they get more consumers to use the Internet instead of seeking information from salespeople?

B) How can they drive their information to consumers?

C) How can they drive consumers to their information?

D) How (if at all) can online selling be utilized or integrated with existing channels?

E) all of the above are major issues marketers must deal with

53. Unsolicited e-mail that is a major concern and irritant and is known as _____.

A) spit

B) spam

C) blog

D) junk mail

E) banner mail

54. Lisa has to check her e-mail frequently to delete the unsolicited messages she gets, typically for loans and prescription drugs. If she doesn't delete them, her inbox will fill up and e-mails that she wants to receive won't get through. This unsolicited e-mail is known as _____.

A) spit

B) spam

C) blog

D) junk mail

E) banner mail

55. The percentage who clicks through a banner ad to the corporate Web site is known as _____.

A) response rate

B) turnover rate

C) clickthrough rate

D) rating

E) hits

56. _____ involves tracking consumer click patterns on a Web site and using that information to decide on banner ad placement.

A) Clickthrough targeting

B) Search engine optimization

C) Bot software

D) Behavioral targeting

E) Spam

57. Ben is interested in golf, so he visits several golf-related Web sites, such as the USGA and the PGA. Unbeknownst to him, his surfing behavior is being tracked, and it's no accident that he receives several banner ads for golf products and destinations. This is called _____.

A) market segmentation

B) search engine optimization

C) spam

D) blogging

E) behavioral targeting

58. Which of the following involves techniques designed to ensure that a company's Web pages appear high on an Internet search result list?

A) market segmentation

B) search engine optimization

C) spam

D) blogging

E) behavioral targeting

59. Kodak markets digital cameras and is aware that consumers search for information concerning this product on the Internet using one of the several search engines (e.g., Google). To ensure that Kodak appears on the first page of results, this company pays the search engine to become a sponsored link when consumers search the key words “digital camera.” This is an illustration of _____.

A) market segmentation

B) search engine optimization

C) spam

D) blogging

E) behavioral targeting

60. Which of the following factors influences the expected benefits and perceived costs of search?

A) market characteristics

B) product characteristics

C) consumer characteristics

D) situation characteristics

E) all of the above

61. The number of alternatives, price range, store distribution, and information availability are examples of which factor that influences the expected benefits and perceived costs of search?

A) market characteristics

B) product characteristics

C) consumer characteristics

D) situation characteristics

E) technological characteristics

62. Feature and quality variations across brands are referred to as _____.

A) product positioning

B) brand leverage

C) product differentiation

D) market segmentation

E) market characteristics

63. Experience, familiarity, social status, shopping orientation and product involvement are examples of which factor that influences the expected benefits and perceived costs of search?

A) market characteristics

B) product characteristics

C) consumer characteristics

D) situation characteristics

E) personality traits

64. Consumers' general approaches or patterns of external search are termed _____.

A) social status

B) shopping orientations

C) involvement

D) motives

E) differentials

65. Which of the following is NOT a type of knowledge where a low level of calibration frequently occurs to the detriment of consumers and firms?

A) memory of facts

B) memory of events

C) belief polarization

D) personal forecasts

E) all of the above

66. Perceived risk is a function of the _____.

A) individual

B) product

C) situation

D) a and b

E) a, b, and c

67. Perceived risk is high for products whose failure to perform as expected would result in a high _____.

A) social cost

B) financial cost

C) time cost

D) physical cost

E) all of the above

68. Which of the following is probably the most important situational variable with respect to search behavior?

A) temporal perspective

B) task definition

C) physical surroundings

D) antecedent state

E) social surrounding

69. Which marketing strategies are appropriate for nominal decision making?

A) maintenance strategy and disrupt strategy

B) capture strategy and intercept strategy

C) preference strategy and acceptance strategy

D) maintenance strategy and intercept strategy

E) capture strategy and acceptance strategy

70. Which marketing strategies are appropriate for limited decision making?

A) maintenance strategy and disrupt strategy

B) capture strategy and intercept strategy

C) preference strategy and acceptance strategy

D) maintenance strategy and intercept strategy

E) capture strategy and acceptance strategy

71. Which marketing strategies are appropriate for extended decision making?

A) maintenance strategy and disrupt strategy

B) capture strategy and intercept strategy

C) preference strategy and acceptance strategy

D) maintenance strategy and intercept strategy

E) capture strategy and acceptance strategy

72. If a brand is included in a consumer's evoked set, which marketing strategy is NOT appropriate?

A) maintenance strategy

B) intercept strategy

C) capture strategy

D) preference strategy

E) all of the above are appropriate

73. Which marketing strategy is appropriate if the brand is not part of consumers' evoked sets?

A) disrupt strategy

B) maintenance strategy

C) capture strategy

D) preference strategy

E) all of the above

74. Which marketing strategy requires consistent attention to product quality, distribution, and a reinforcement advertising strategy because the brand is purchased habitually by the target market?

A) capture strategy

B) acceptance strategy

C) maintenance strategy

D) preference strategy

E) disrupt strategy

75. Coca-Cola has a large brand-loyal purchaser segment. Which marketing strategy is appropriate for this brand?

A) capture strategy

B) acceptance strategy

C) maintenance strategy

D) preference strategy

E) disrupt strategy

76. Which marketing strategy is appropriate if the brand is not part of the evoked set and the target market engages in nominal decision making?

A) capture strategy

B) acceptance strategy

C) maintenance strategy

D) preference strategy

E) disrupt strategy

77. If the target market engages in limited decision making and the brand is not part of their evoked set, the objective will be to _____.

A) disrupt the existing decision patterns

B) capture as large a share of the purchases as practical

C) intercept the consumer during the search for information on the brands in the evoked set

D) develop a strong position on those attributes important to the target market

E) defend against the disruptive tactics of competitors

78. One marketer for a brand of shampoo learned through research that consumers in the target market engage in limited decision making but that this marketer's brand is not part of their evoked set. Which marketing strategy is appropriate for this company?

A) capture strategy

B) acceptance strategy

C) maintenance strategy

D) preference strategy

E) intercept strategy

79. Extended decision making with the brand in the evoked set requires which marketing strategy?

A) capture strategy

B) preference strategy

C) intercept strategy

D) maintenance strategy

E) disrupt strategy

80. Which marketing strategy is similar to preference strategy but is complicated by the fact that the target market is not seeking information about the brand?

A) capture strategy

B) acceptance strategy

C) maintenance strategy

D) intercept strategy

E) disrupt strategy

81. Consumers continually recognize problems and opportunities, so internal and external searches for information to solve these problems are ongoing processes.

82. One reason a consumer does an ongoing search is because the process itself is pleasurable to him or her.

83. All of the brands thought of as potential solutions are known as the consideration set.

84. The brands found to be completely unworthy of further consideration comprise the excluded set.

85. Marketing strategy that focuses only on creating awareness may be inadequate.

86. The awareness set has generally been found to be smaller than the evoked set.

87. The five primary sources of information available to consumers are memory, personal sources, independent sources, marketing sources, and experiential sources.

88. Research has shown that the Internet is used equally by all segments of the adult U.S. population.

89. Online services use bots, which are software “robots” that do the shopping/searching for users, and are therefore often referred to as shopping bots.

90. Banner ads are one way to drive a firm's information to consumers.

91. Search engine optimization involves tracking consumer click patterns on a Web site and using that information to decide on banner ad placement.

92. Most purchases are the result of extended decision making and therefore involve considerable external search prior to purchase.

93. Market characteristics that influence the expected benefits and perceived costs of search include the number of alternatives, price range, store distribution, and information availability.

94. A recent study found that a low level of calibration frequently occurs to the detriment of consumers and firms in the areas of memory of facts and events, belief polarization and validity, and personal forecasts.

95. The perceived risk associated with unsatisfactory product performance increases information search prior to purchase.

96. The maintenance marketing strategy is appropriate if consumers use extended decision making and the brand is in the evoked set.

Chapter 16

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following was used by Sunbeam Appliance Company to assist in redesigning its many lines of small kitchen appliances?

A) consumer usage and attitude survey

B) consumer attribute and benefit survey

C) conjoint analysis

D) product line sales and market share simulations

E) all of the above

2. How did Sunbeam Appliance Company use conjoint analysis to help them redesign its many lines of small kitchen appliances?

A) It was used to determine how and for what purpose products in the product category are used, frequency of use, brand ownership, brand awareness, and attitudes toward the product.

B) It was used to provide importance ratings of product attributes and benefits desired from the product category, along with perceptions of the degree to which each brand provides the various attributes and benefits.

C) It was used to provide data on the structure of consumers' preferences for product features and their willingness to trade one feature for more of another feature.

D) It was used to determine emotional dimensions of food processors.

E) It was used to determine consumers' evoked sets with respect to small kitchen appliances.

3. Which of the following does NOT influence the evaluation of alternatives on each criterion?

A) decision rules applied

B) evaluative criteria

C) importance of criteria

D) alternatives considered

E) all of the above influence the evaluation of alternatives on each criterion

4. Which theory assumes that the consumer is a rational decision maker with well-defined, stable preferences, and has sufficient skills to calculate which option will maximize his or her value and will choose on this basis?

A) attribution theory

B) rational choice theory

C) dual coding theory

D) affect theory

E) calculated theory

5. What is the task in the rational choice theory?

A) to identify a consumer's evoked set

B) to identify the feelings and emotions influencing consumers' decisions

C) to identify the trade offs consumers are willing to accept with respect to product attributes

D) to identify or discover the one optimal choice for the decision confronting the decision maker

E) to identify the cognitive structure of consumers when making a choice

6. A metagoal refers to _____.

A) the overall amount of energy devoted to any given purchase

B) the general nature of the outcome being sought

C) the conscious thinking of all decision processes

D) using nonfinancial criteria to make purchase decisions

E) none of the above

7. Which of the following is an example of a metagoal?

A) maximizing the accuracy of the decision

B) minimize the cognitive effort required for the decision

C) minimize the experience of negative emotion while making the decision

D) maximize the ease with which a decision can be justified

E) all of the above

8. Maximizing the accuracy of the decision or minimizing the experience of negative emotion while making the decision are examples of consumer _____.

A) metagoals

B) rational goals

C) evoked goals

D) affective goals

E) primary goals

9. A limited capacity for processing information is known as _____.

A) working memory

B) bounded memory

C) bounded rationality

D) bounded processing

E) finite processing

10. Duane is of average intelligence, and like most consumers, he cannot compare too many alternatives at one time. This limited capacity for processing information is known as _____.

A) working memory

B) bounded memory

C) bounded rationality

D) bounded processing

E) finite processing

11. Which of the following is a type of consumer choice process?

A) affective choice

B) attitude-based choice

C) attribute-based choice

D) a and b

E) a, b, and c

12. Which of the following is NOT a type of consumer choice process?

A) affective choice

B) attitude-based choice

C) rational choice

D) metachoice

E) all of the above are types of consumer choice processes

13. Which of the following tends to be more holistic in nature, and the brand is not decomposed into distinct components that are evaluated separately from the whole?

A) affective choice

B) attitude-based choice

C) rational choice

D) attribute-based choice

E) instrumental choice

14. Amy is shopping for a dress to wear to a formal dance. She tried on several dresses, not even noticing the price of each. After about two hours of this, she tried one on and exclaimed, “This is it!” That particular dress was the one that she thought made her look fabulous, so she bought it. Which type of choice did Amy use to select this dress?

A) affective choice

B) attitude-based choice

C) rational choice

D) attribute-based choice

E) instrumental choice

15. Which of the following motives are most likely in affective choices?

A) consummatory motives

B) primary motives

C) affective motives

D) immediate motives

E) instrumental motives

16. Which type of motives underlie behaviors that are intrinsically rewarding to the individual involved?

A) instrumental motives

B) affective motives

C) cognitive motives

D) consummatory motives

E) personal motives

17. Pamela likes to sew because it relaxes her. To her, it's like therapy. For Pamela, sewing represents which type of motive?

A) instrumental motive

B) affective motive

C) cognitive motive

D) consummatory motive

E) personal motive

18. Which type of motives activates behaviors designed to achieve a second goal?

A) instrumental motives

B) affective motives

C) cognitive motives

D) consummatory motives

E) personal motives

19. Hannah asked her mother to buy her a certain brand of athletic shoes because that's what all the other kids are wearing at school. For Hannah, which type of motive is most likely underlying her request for that specific brand?

A) instrumental motive

B) affective motive

C) cognitive motive

D) consummatory motive

E) personal motive

20. Which type of consumer choice process requires the knowledge of specific attributes at the time the choice is made, and it involves attribute-by-attribute comparisons across brands?

A) affective choice

B) attitude-based choice

C) rational choice

D) attribute-based choice

E) instrumental choice

21. Joseph is considering the purchase of a computer, and he is comparing brands on the basis of price, memory, speed, and reliability. He mentally ranks each alternative on these attributes and makes a selection based on these rankings. Joseph is using which type of choice process?

A) affective choice

B) attitude-based choice

C) rational choice

D) attribute-based choice

E) instrumental choice

22. Which type of consumer choice process involves the use of general attitudes, summary impressions, intuitions, or heuristics, and no attribute-by-attribute comparisons are made at the time of choice?

A) affective choice

B) attitude-based choice

C) rational choice

D) attribute-based choice

E) instrumental choice

23. Bobbie bought a Dell computer because her brother has one, and he seems to be satisfied with it. She did not compare any other computers when making this choice. Which type of choice process did Bobbie use?

A) affective choice

B) attitude-based choice

C) rational choice

D) attribute-based choice

E) instrumental choice

24. Which of the following statements is true regarding consumer choice processes?

A) Attitude-based choices require the knowledge of specific attributes at the time the choice is made.

B) The greater the motivation to make an optimal decision, the more likely an attitude-based choice will be made.

C) Motivation, information availability, and situational factors interact to determine which choice process will be used.

D) Consumers do not use attitude-based choices for important decisions.

E) Attitude-based choices require the comparison of each specific attribute across all brands considered.

25. The various dimensions, features, or benefits consumers look for in response to a specific problem are called _____.

A) alternatives

B) choices

C) heuristics

D) evaluative criteria

E) motives

26. Nancy usually considers price and quality when she has to make a major purchase, such as an appliance or an automobile. These two features represent Nancy's _____.

A) alternatives

B) choices

C) heuristics

D) evaluative criteria

E) motives

27. Evaluative criteria can differ on which of the following?

A) type

B) number

C) importance

D) a and b

E) a, b, and c

28. Evaluative criteria differ on all EXCEPT which of the following?

A) type

B) number

C) quality

D) importance

E) evaluative criteria can differ on all of the above

29. The two types of evaluative criteria are _____.

A) primary and secondary

B) tangible and intangible

C) manifest and latent

D) direct and indirect

E) consummatory and instrumental

30. Cost and performance features are examples of which type of evaluative criteria?

A) tangible

B) intangible

C) primary

D) secondary

E) instrumental

31. Andrew is considering the purchase of a portable DVD player. He is comparing alternatives on the basis of screen size, battery life, and price. Andrew is using which type of evaluative criteria?

A) tangible

B) intangible

C) primary

D) secondary

E) instrumental

32. Style, taste, prestige, feelings generated, and brand image are examples of which type of evaluative criteria?

A) tangible

B) intangible

C) primary

D) secondary

E) instrumental

33. Samantha is purchasing a new car. She knows she should compare alternatives on the basis of cost and performance features, but she can't help but consider the styling and the color. She also wants a car that will make her look “cool” and feel special when she's driving it. Styling, color, and how the car will make her feel are examples of _____ evaluative criteria.

A) tangible

B) intangible

C) primary

D) secondary

E) consummatory

34. Before a marketing manager or public policy decision maker can develop a sound strategy to affect consumer decisions, he or she must determine _____.

A) which evaluative criteria are used by the consumer

B) how the consumer perceives the various alternatives on each criterion

C) the relative importance of each criterion

D) a and b

E) a, b, and c

35. Before a marketing manager or a public policy decision maker can develop a sound strategy to affect consumer decisions, her or she must determine all EXCEPT which of the following?

A) which evaluative criteria are used by the consumer

B) how the consumer perceives the various alternatives on each criterion

C) the relative importance of each criterion

D) all of the above must be determined

E) none of the above

36. To determine which criteria are used by consumers in a specific product decision, the marketing researcher can utilize which two methods of measurement?

A) primary and secondary

B) manifest and latent

C) direct and indirect

D) immediate and delayed

E) nominal and interval

37. Which measurement method involves asking consumers what criteria they use in a particular purchase or, in a focus group setting, noting what consumers say about products and their attributes?

A) direct

B) indirect

C) projective

D) perceptual mapping

E) word association

38. Chaz was asked by a market researcher which criteria he uses when purchasing beer. He told the researcher that taste and price are important to him. Which method did the researcher use to obtain this information from Chaz?

A) direct

B) indirect

C) projective

D) perceptual mapping

E) word association

39. Which measurement technique used to assess consumers' evaluative criteria assumes consumers will not or cannot state their evaluative criteria?

A) direct

B) indirect

C) primary

D) secondary

E) differential

40. Which of the following are indirect measurement techniques used to determine consumers' evaluative criteria?

A) conjoint analysis and factor analysis

B) factor analysis and regression analysis

C) regression analysis and perceptual mapping

D) projective techniques and perceptual mapping

E) projective techniques and regression analysis

41. Which indirect measurement techniques used to determine consumers' evaluative criteria allow the respondent to indicate the criteria someone else might use?

A) tangible

B) intangible

C) projective techniques

D) perceptual mapping

E) conjoint analysis

42. Gwen is an elderly lady and is participating in a market research study. The researcher asked her to describe the criteria someone who needs adult diapers might use to evaluate alternatives. The researcher was not asking Gwen what criteria she would use, but rather, the criteria Gwen thinks someone else would use. Which type of technique is this known as?

A) tangible technique

B) intangible technique

C) projective technique

D) perceptual mapping

E) conjoint analysis

43. A technique that requires consumers to judge the similarity of alternative brands is _____.

A) conjoint analysis

B) attitude survey

C) semantic differential scale

D) perceptual mapping

E) none of the above

44. Gail was participating in a market research study, and she was given 20 pairs of brands of shampoo and asked to indicate which pair is most similar, which is second most similar, and so forth until all pairs were ranked. Which type of indirect measurement technique used to assess Gail's evaluative criteria does this represent?

A) perceptual mapping

B) conjoint analysis

C) evaluative mapping

D) regression analysis

E) factor analysis

45. With the information provided by perceptual mapping the marketer can determine all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A) how the position of brands changes in response to marketing efforts

B) how different brands are positioned according to evaluative criteria

C) how to position new brands using evaluative criteria

D) how consumers will trade one evaluative criteria for another

E) all of the above

46. Which of the following is the most widely used technique for measuring consumers' judgments of brand performance on specific attributes?

A) rank ordering scales

B) semantic differential scales

C) constant sum scales

D) Likert scales

E) nominal scales

47. Which of the following is the most common method of direct measurement of the relative importance of consumers' evaluative criteria?

A) rank ordering scales

B) semantic differential scales

C) constant sum scales

D) Likert scales

E) nominal scales

48. Which of the following is the most popular indirect measurement approach to measuring the relative importance of consumers' evaluative criteria?

A) perceptual mapping

B) regression analysis

C) factor analysis

D) conjoint analysis

E) cluster analysis

49. In which type of indirect measurement approach to measuring the relative importance of consumers' evaluative criteria are consumers presented with several descriptions of alternatives and asked to rank all of them in terms of his or her preference for those combinations of features?

A) perceptual mapping

B) regression analysis

C) factor analysis

D) conjoint analysis

E) cluster analysis

50. Jamie was participating in a market research study regarding computers when he was presented with 24 different computers that varied on four criteria. He was asked to rank all 24 descriptions in terms of his preference for those combinations of features. Which approach to assess the relative importance Jamie places on evaluative criteria was this research using?

A) perceptual mapping

B) regression analysis

C) factor analysis

D) conjoint analysis

E) cluster analysis

51. Which of the following is an example of a federal law passed to facilitate direct comparisons among alternatives?

A) Telephone Consumer Protection Act

B) Truth-in-Lending law

C) Federal Trade Commission Act

D) Wheeler-Lea Amendment

E) Just Noticeable Difference law

52. The ability of an individual to distinguish between similar stimuli is called _____.

A) stimulus generalization

B) perceptual generalization

C) perceptual discrimination

D) sensory perception

E) sensory discrimination

53. Sensory discrimination is _____.

A) the minimum amount that one brand can differ from another with the difference still being noticed

B) the maximum amount that one brand can differ from another without it being perceived as unreasonable by consumers

C) the ability of an individual to distinguish between distinctly different stimuli

D) the ability of an individual to distinguish between similar stimuli

E) the relative importance consumers place on evaluative criteria

54. The minimum amount that one brand can differ from another with the difference still being noticed is referred to as the ______.

A) discriminatory difference

B) sensory difference

C) just noticeable difference

D) recognition difference

E) obvious difference

55. Procter & Gamble is the manufacturer of Pampers diapers. At one time, the price of a typical package of diapers was relatively high (i.e., over $12 a package). Due to the threat of store brands stealing market share because of their lower price, P&G decided to lower the price for Pampers. While most consumers noticed the price reduction because P&G promoted that fact, what most of them did not notice was that the number of diapers per package also decreased. However, the reduction was only one or two diapers per package. Which of the following best explains why consumers did not notice the reduction in the quantity?

A) Number of diapers per package was not important to consumers.

B) The reduction in the quantity did not reach the level of a just noticeable difference.

C) Price is more important than quantity to consumers.

D) Consumers are price conscious for this product category.

E) Consumers are brand loyal.

56. An attribute used to stand for or indicate another attribute is known as a _____.

A) determinant attribute

B) substitute indicator

C) surrogate indicator

D) secondary indicator

E) proxy

57. Which of the following is often used as a surrogate indicator of quality?

A) price

B) advertising intensity

C) warranties

D) country of origin

E) all of the above

58. Sam is a retiree with considerable resources, so he doesn't really spend much time on purchase decisions. His belief is that the most expensive brand is probably also the best in terms of quality. Sam uses price as a _____ indicator of quality.

A) surrogate

B) proxy

C) primary

D) substitute

E) secondary

59. Which of the following does NOT affect how important various criteria are for consumers?

A) usage situation

B) competitive context

C) advertising effects

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

60. John drinks Schwepps Ginger Ale for dinner as a beverage, while Jack uses it only as a mixer in his cocktails. Which factor that influences the importance of evaluative criteria is this?

A) usage situation

B) competitive context

C) advertising effects

D) quantity of criteria

E) temporal perspective

61. Speed of service and convenient location are criteria Jake considers when deciding at which restaurant to eat lunch during a work day. However, when he and his wife go out for a romantic dinner, the ambiance and quality of the food are more important. Which factor is influencing the importance he places of various criteria?

A) usage situation

B) competitive context

C) advertising effects

D) experience

E) social influences

62. Which type of test is one in which the consumer is not aware of the product's brand name?

A) surrogate tests

B) generic tests

C) blind tests

D) primary tests

E) perceptual tests

63. The famous Pepsi challenge had consumers taste two brands of cola without letting them know the brand name of either. Which type of test is this?

A) surrogate tests

B) generic tests

C) blind tests

D) primary tests

E) perceptual tests

64. Which type of test enables the marketer to evaluate the functional characteristics of the product and to determine if an advantage over a particular competitor has been obtained without the contaminating, or halo, effects of the brand name or the firm's reputation?

A) surrogate tests

B) generic tests

C) blind tests

D) primary tests

E) perceptual tests

65. Firms with a limited reputation sometimes do which of the following with a reputable firm so as to gain from the quality associated with the known brand?

A) conduct blind tests

B) form brand alliances

C) use two-sided messages

D) form conjoint alliances

E) form conjunctive alliances

Answer: B Page: 580 Difficulty: hard

66. A new brand of peanut butter cookies includes Hershey's Kisses chocolates on top. Which of the following is this new brand using in an attempt to gain from the quality associated with Hershey's chocolate?

A) blind test

B) brand alliance

C) two-sided message

D) conjoint alliance

E) conjunctive alliance

67. Which of the following is a decision rule used by consumers?

A) conjunctive

B) disjunctive

C) lexicographic

D) compensatory

E) all of the above

68. Which of the following is NOT a decision rule used by consumers?

A) conjunctive

B) disjunctive

C) lexicographic

D) compensatory

E) conjoint

69. Which of the following is a noncompensatory decision rule?

A) conjunctive

B) disjunctive

C) lexicographic

D) elimination-by-aspects

E) all of the above

70. Which decision rule establishes minimum required performance standards for each evaluative criterion and selects the first or all brands that meet or exceed these minimum standards?

A) conjunctive

B) disjunctive

C) lexicographic

D) elimination-by-aspects

E) compensatory

71. Conrad is considering the purchase of a laptop computer. He has decided that he will not spend more that $1200, the computer must weigh no more that 4 pounds, and battery life must last at least 4 hours. He has similar minimum requirements for a few other criteria he is using to evaluate alternatives. If an alternative does not meet ALL of these minimum requirements, he will not consider it further. Which decision rule is Conrad using?

A) conjunctive

B) disjunctive

C) lexicographic

D) elimination-by-aspects

E) compensatory

72. Given the following minimum standards (cutoff points) Price = 3, Quality = 4, and Ease of use = 3, which of the following computers would be chosen using the conjunctive decision rule?

A) IBM

B) NEC

C) Compaq

D) There's not enough information to decide.

E) None of the above computers would be chosen.

73. Given attribute cutoffs of Price = 5, Quality = 5, and Weight = 4, which of the following would be chosen using the disjunctive decision rule?

A) NEC

B) Compaq

C) IBM

D) Compaq and IBM would be considered further.

E) Compaq and NEC would be considered further.

74. Which decision rule establishes a minimum level of performance for each important attribute (often a fairly high level), and all brands that meet or exceed the performance level for any key attribute are considered acceptable?

A) conjunctive

B) disjunctive

C) lexicographic

D) elimination-by-aspects

E) compensatory

75. Which decision rule requires the consumer to rank the evaluative criteria in terms of their importance and to establish a cutoff point for each criterion, and all brands are first considered on the most important criterion, the second most important, and so on until only one brand remains?

A) conjunctive

B) disjunctive

C) lexicographic

D) elimination-by-aspects

E) compensatory

76. Miles is considering the purchase of a new car. Price is the most important criterion for him, and he will only consider those models that do not exceed $20,000. Since several models satisfy this criterion, he then considers how each alternative performs with respect to gas mileage, and he will not consider any that get less than 20 miles per gallon in the city. Which decision rule is Miles using?

A) conjunctive

B) disjunctive

C) lexicographic

D) elimination-by-aspects

E) compensatory

77. Given the following information, which of the following compact disc players would be chosen using the elimination-by-aspects decision rule?

A) Sony

B) Sanyo

C) Pioneer

D) Sony and Pioneer would be considered further.

E) none of the above

78. Given the following information, which of the following compact disc players would be chosen using the lexicographic decision rule?

A) Sony

B) Sanyo

C) Pioneer

D) Sony and Pioneer would be considered further.

E) none of the above compact disc players would be chosen

79. Which decision rule requires the consumer to rank the criteria in order of importance, and then the consumer selects the brand that performs best on the most important attribute?

A) conjunctive

B) disjunctive

C) lexicographic

D) elimination-by-aspects

E) compensatory

80. Given the following importance weights Price = 50, Quality = 40, and Ease of use = 10, which of the following computers would be chosen using a compensatory decision rule?

A) IBM

B) A tie between Compaq and IBM.

C) NEC

D) Compaq

E) A tie between NEC and IBM.

81. Which decision rule states that the brand that rates highest on the sum of the consumer's judgments of the relevant criteria will be chosen?

A) conjunctive

B) disjunctive

C) lexicographic

D) elimination-by-aspects

E) compensatory

82. The multiattribute model is which type of decision rule?

A) compensatory

B) noncompensatory

C) disjunctive

D) lexicographic

E) elimination-by-aspects

83. Joanne is considering the purchase of a microwave oven and has four evaluative criteria. For each criterion, she has attached an importance weight (“W”), and each brand is evaluated on its performance on that criterion (“B”). Then a rating is calculated by summing the product of the B's and W's on a criterion for each brand, and the brand with the highest overall rating is chosen. Which type of decision rule is Joanne using?

A) conjunctive

B) disjunctive

C) lexicographic

D) elimination-by-aspects

E) compensatory

84. All consumers have a bounded rationality.

85. Affective choices tend to be holistic in nature.

86. Attribute-based choices involve the use of general attitudes, summary impressions, intuitions, or heuristics.

87. Attitude-based choices are not used for important decisions.

88. Evaluative criteria can differ in type, number, and importance.

89. Indirect measurement techniques used to determine consumers' evaluative criteria differ from direct measurements in that they assume consumers will not or cannot state their evaluative criteria.

90. The most common method of direct measurement to determine the relative importance of evaluative criteria is the semantic differential.

91. An attribute used to stand for or indicate another attribute is known as a proxy indicator.

92. Factors affecting the relative importance and influence of evaluative criteria include usage situation, competitive context, and advertising effects.

93. Conjunctive, disjunctive, elimination-by-aspects, and lexicographic are noncompensatory decision rules.

94. The conjunctive decision rule establishes minimum required performance standards for each evaluative criterion and selects the first or all brands that meet or exceed these minimum standards.

95. The disjunctive decision rule establishes an optimum level of performance for each evaluative criterion.

96. For a target market using the elimination-by-aspects rule, it is critical to meet or surpass the consumers' requirements on one more (in order) of the criteria used than the competition.

97. In a compensatory decision, a brand's weakness on one attribute cannot be overcome by it's strength on another attribute.

Chapter 18

1. The NFL is able to customize their newsletter by _____.

A) tracking what pieces are clicked on

B) providing news about the individual fan's favorite team

C) matching the individual fan's specific interests

D) enabling fans to update their profile

E) all of the above

2. Which of the following is NOT a possible outcome once a consumer is satisfied?

A) committed customer

B) discontinued use

C) repeat purchases

D) increased use

E) all of the above are possible outcomes

3. Doubt or anxiety regarding a purchase a consumer has made is known as _____.

A) postpurchase worry

B) postpurchase guilt

C) postpurchase dissonance

D) postpurchase shame

E) postpurchase fear

4. Which of the following is true regarding postpurchase dissonance?

A) All consumer purchase decisions are followed by postpurchase dissonance of some sort.

B) The importance of the decision to the consumer is one factor that influences the probability and magnitude of postpurchase dissonance.

C) The individual's tendency to experience anxiety is not related to postpurchase dissonance.

D) The easier it is to alter the decision, the more likely postpurchase dissonance will be.

E) Nominal decision making usually results in the greatest magnitude of postpurchase dissonance.

5. The probability of a consumer experiencing postpurchase dissonance, as well as the magnitude of such dissonance, is a function of which of the following?

A) The degree of commitment or irrevocability of the decision.

B) The importance of the decision to the consumer.

C) The difficulty of choosing among the alternatives.

D) The individual's tendency to experience anxiety.

E) all of the above

6. Connie just purchased her first new car, and she's actually feeling a little bad about it. She's concerned about how much money she spent and how long she will be making car payments. She's not sure she made the right choice, either. She liked another car a little better, but ended up purchasing another model. Connie is experiencing _____.

A) postpurchase worry

B) postpurchase guilt

C) postpurchase dissonance

D) postpurchase shame

E) postpurchase fear

7. Which of the following is NOT an action a consumer may utilize to reduce dissonance?

A) Increase the desirability of the brand purchased.

B) Decrease the desirability of rejected alternatives.

C) Decrease the importance of the purchase decision.

D) Reverse the purchase decision (return the product before use).

E) Increase the importance of alternatives that were not considered in the purchase initially.

8. Carla continued to search for information on cars even after she purchased one. She would go over her decision in her head, and pay attention to ads that featured the car she bought. She was also noticing how many other people drove her model of car, which made her feel more confident that she made a wise decision. Carla is attempting to reduce _____.

A) consumption guilt

B) postpurchase dissonance

C) postpurchase shame

D) postpurchase fear

E) consumption anxiety

9. Hailey purchased furniture for her living room and spent quite a bit of money. After she purchased it, she started regretting that she spent so much and she wasn't sure she liked the furniture. To make herself feel better, she told herself that the other furniture she was considering really wasn't that good and probably would not last as long as the furniture she ended up purchasing. Which of the following is Hailey using to reduce her postpurchase dissonance?

A) Increasing the desirability of the brand purchased.

B) Decreasing the desirability of rejected alternatives.

C) Decreasing the importance of the purchase decision.

D) Reversing the purchase decision.

E) Increasing the importance of the purchase decision.

10. Negative emotions or guilt feelings aroused by the use of a product or a service are referred to as _____.

A) postpurchase anxiety

B) consumption guilt

C) consumption anxiety

D) postpurchase dissonance

E) consumption dissonance

11. Rebecca is a single woman in her 40s. She sold her Honda Civic and bought an Acura CSX, which is considerably more expensive. She was going to her brother's house with her mother, and she asked her mother to drive in her car instead of Rebecca's new one. She didn't want her brother to see that she had purchased an expensive car for herself. Rebecca was experiencing _____.

A) postpurchase anxiety

B) consumption guilt

C) consumption anxiety

D) postpurchase dissonance

E) consumption dissonance

12. Which of the following refers to imagining the outcome if a different decision had been made in the past?

A) postpurchase dissonance

B) consumption guilt

C) counterfactual thinking

D) prefactual thinking

E) innovative thinking

13. Which of the following statements is true regarding counterfactual thinking?

A) It occurs before a decision is made.

B) Marketers try to avoid consumers from thinking this way.

C) It is the same as prefactual thinking, but it is more severe.

D) Marketers always try to reduce the likelihood that consumer think this way.

E) It can be removed by price guarantees.

14. Hunter purchased a new computer, and he started thinking about what it would be like if he had purchased the other brand that he was considering seriously. He purchased a Dell, but he kept thinking that if he had only spent a little more and purchased the IBM, he might not be experiencing some of the problems that he is (i.e., computer “freezing up”). Which of the following is Hunter engaging in?

A) postpurchase anxiety

B) consumption guilt

C) counterfactual thinking

D) prefactual thinking

E) innovative thinking

15. Which of the following refers to imagining different outcomes before a decision is made?

A) prepurchase dissonance

B) consumption guilt

C) counterfactual thinking

D) prefactual thinking

E) innovative thinking

16. Bob wants to purchase a big screen television, but he's reluctant because he tells himself that “If I buy it now, then the price will drop and I'll regret not waiting longer.” Bob is engaging in _____.

A) prepurchase dissonance

B) consumption guilt

C) counterfactual thinking

D) prefactual thinking

E) purchase anxiety

17. A consumer using a product in a new way is referred to as _____.

A) counterfactual thinking

B) prefactual thinking

C) use innovativeness

D) usage expansion

E) extended use thinking

18. The external ice cube shoot on Cade's refrigerator door was not working properly. She could hear the ice falling into the shoot, but nothing would come out. She looked inside and realized there was a solid block of ice clogging the shoot, and she couldn't get it loose. Cade decided to use a hair dryer to melt the ice, and it worked. Cade's using a hair dryer in a new way represents _____.

A) counterfactual thinking

B) prefactual thinking

C) use innovativeness

D) usage expansion

E) extended use thinking

19. Why must manufacturers design products with both the primary purpose and other potential uses in mind?

A) consumers demand it

B) competition requires it

C) to be able to promote secondary uses

D) stringent product liability laws

E) to save on research and development costs

20. Which of the following occurs when a consumer actively acquires a product that is not used or used only sparingly relative to its potential use?

A) consumption guilt

B) nonconsumption guilt

C) product nonuse

D) counterfactual thinking

E) prefactual thinking

21. Disposition of the product or the product's container may occur _____ product use.

A) during

B) after

C) before

D) a and b

E) a, b, and c

22. For which product is no disposition involved?

A) ice cream cone

B) laundry detergent

C) soft drink

D) clothing

E) electronics

23. Carl and his family purchased a new home, and the builder left half empty paint cans in the garage. Carl doesn't know what to do with them because he cannot put them out in the regular trash. Carl is concerned with which of the following with regard to the paint?

A) purchase

B) use

C) disposition

D) consumption

E) product nonuse

24. Exploding demand and short product life-spans for high-tech gadgets such as cell phones, personal computers, and various other personal electronic devices is creating growing concerns over _____.

A) e-waste

B) poisonous waste

C) hazardous waste

D) reusable waste

E) recyclable waste

25. Which disposition alternative is the most widely used by consumers?

A) trade in

B) recycle

C) throw away

D) give away

E) sell

26. Which of the following is NOT an alternative if a consumer decides to retain a product's package?

A) store it

B) use it for original purpose

C) recycle it

D) use it for a new purpose

E) all of the above are alternatives in this situation

27. Which of the following is an alternative once a consumer has decided to get rid of a product?

A) sell it

B) give it away

C) loan it to someone

D) throw it away

E) all of the above

28. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the way in which disposition decisions can affect a firm's marketing strategy?

A) For most durable goods, consumers are reluctant to purchase a new item until they have “gotten their money's worth” from the old one.

B) Disposition sometimes must occur before acquisition of a replacement because of space or financial limitations.

C) Frequent decisions by consumer to sell, trade, or give away used products results in a large used-product market that can reduce the market for new products.

D) The United States is a completely throw away society, and consumers are willing to purchase new products without concern for waste.

E) Environmentally sound disposition decisions benefit society as a whole and thus the firms that are part of that society.

29. Which type of sale occurs when one consumer sells a product directly to another with or without the assistance of a commercial intermediary?

A) direct-to-consumer sale

B) consumer-to-consumer sale

C) personal sale

D) private sale

E) direct marketing

30. Jon purchased an antique watch on eBay from another consumer. Which type of sale is this known as?

A) direct-to-consumer sale

B) consumer-to-consumer sale

C) personal sale

D) private sale

E) electronically-mediated sale

31. An outlet or brand whose performance confirms a low-performance expectation generally will result in _____.

A) satisfaction

B) dissatisfaction

C) nonsatisfaction

D) elation

E) anger

32. Rod wasn't expecting much from the painters that came to his house. True to form, they did not do a good job and confirmed his low-performance expectations. Rod is most likely experiencing _____.

A) satisfaction

B) dissatisfaction

C) nonsatisfaction

D) elation

E) anger

33. A brand whose perceived performance falls below expectations generally produces _____.

A) satisfaction

B) dissatisfaction

C) nonsatisfaction

D) elation

E) fear

34. Kristen purchased a chair and ottoman from a national chain furniture store. After only six months, the fabric started to fade and tear in some spots. While she didn't spend much money on this chair, she did expect it to last longer than that. Kristen most likely experienced _____.

A) satisfaction

B) dissatisfaction

C) nonsatisfaction

D) elation

E) guilt

35. When perceptions of product performance match expectations that are at or above the minimum performance level, _____ generally results.

A) satisfaction

B) dissatisfaction

C) nonsatisfaction

D) elation

E) surprise

36. Jose and his family, all Mexican by birth, went to dine at a new Mexican restaurant in Houston, which is home to many outstanding Mexican restaurants. They were expecting authentic Mexican food, and they got it. They most likely experienced _____.

A) satisfaction

B) dissatisfaction

C) amazement

D) nonsatisfaction

E) surprise

37. Which of the following means that the consumer is enthusiastic about a particular brand and is somewhat immune to actions by competitors?

A) satisfaction

B) commitment

C) market maven

D) brand leverage

E) brand fanatic

38. Pam and her friends ate at a new Italian restaurant, and the food, service, and ambiance exceeded their expectations. They all decided that this was the only Italian restaurant they will ever go to again in their town. This is an illustration of _____.

A) nonsatisfaction

B) extended decision making

C) commitment

D) relationship marketing

E) customer value

39. Which of the following factors is the MOST likely reason consumers change providers of a service?

A) core service failure

B) service encounter failure

C) pricing

D) attraction by competitors

E) ethical problems

40. Eric booked a hotel through hotels.com. However, when he arrived at the hotel, they had no record of his reservation, and he was unable to get a room. He decided then that he would never use this service again. Which reason for changing providers does this represent?

A) core service failure

B) service encounter failure

C) pricing

D) attraction by competitors

E) ethical problems

41. Service employees that are uncaring, impolite, unresponsive, or unknowledgeable will cause consumers to switch providers for which reason?

A) core service failure

B) service encounter failure

C) pricing

D) attraction by competitors

E) ethical problems

42. Kimberly loves the ham and turkey from the Heavenly Ham store. There is only one store in her town, though, and it is pretty far away. She goes that direction on Saturdays for her daughter's music lesson, but by the time it's over and she's heading home, the store is already closed. Sometimes she brings a cooler and stops there before her daughter's lesson, but most of the time she forgets to bring the cooler. She usually ends up buying lunch meat at the grocery deli. Which reason for changing providers does this represent?

A) involuntary switching

B) responses to service failures

C) pricing

D) inconvenience

E) ethical problems

43. Simon was dissatisfied with the meal and service he received at a restaurant, so he complained. The manager came out and was arrogant to Simon, and Simon felt like he was trying to blame him for the bad experience he had by saying he was too picky. Simon vowed never to eat at that restaurant again. Which reason for changing providers does this represent?

A) involuntary switching

B) responses to service failures

C) pricing

D) attraction by competitors

E) ethical problems

44. Renee has been going to the same dentist for years. However, her employer changed her dental insurance plan, and her dentist was not part of the plan. She had to switch to an approved dentist. Which reason for changing providers does this represent?

A) involuntary switching

B) responses to service failures

C) pricing

D) attraction by competitors

E) ethical problems

45. Sherri pulled up to the drive-up ATM at her bank. She put her card in, and it came right back out. On the screen was a message that the machine was not operational. Sherri was not happy. Which incident type with respect to self-service technologies does this represent?

A) technology failure

B) service design flaw

C) technology design flaw

D) customer failure

E) financial failure

46. What are the two dimensions to performance for products?

A) instrumental and symbolic

B) latent and manifest

C) immediate and delayed

D) direct and indirect

E) consummatory and instrumental

47. Which dimension of product performance relates to the physical functioning of the product?

A) affective

B) direct

C) instrumental

D) attributional

E) consummatory

48. Leon is concerned with the reliability and durability of laptop computers he is considering purchasing. This represents which dimension of product performance?

A) affective

B) direct

C) instrumental

D) symbolic

E) consummatory

49. Which dimension of product performance relates to aesthetic or image-enhancement performance?

A) affective

B) direct

C) instrumental

D) symbolic

E) consummatory

50. Monique is buying a new coat for the winter. While she is concerned with how well the coat will keep her warm, she is also concerned with how stylish it will make her look. Her concern for stylishness represents which dimension of product performance?

A) affective

B) direct

C) instrumental

D) symbolic

E) consummatory

51. The emotional response that owning or using the product or outlet provides is known as _____.

A) affective performance

B) direct performance

C) instrumental performance

D) symbolic performance

E) consummatory performance

52. Dawn and her two daughters went to see Pride & Prejudice at the movie theater. They all loved the movie and came out saying “we're so glad she married Mr. Darcy!” This movie provided them with _____.

A) affective performance

B) direct performance

C) instrumental performance

D) symbolic performance

E) consummatory performance

53. What is the first decision a dissatisfied customer will make?

A) whether to complain to the store or to the manufacturer

B) whether or not to stop buying that brand

C) whether or not to take any external action

D) whether or not to initiate legal action

E) whether or not to complain to a government agency

54. Ronald is dissatisfied with a product he has bought. What is the first decision Ronald will make with regard to his dissatisfying situation?

A) whether to complain to the store or to the manufacturer

B) whether or not to stop buying that brand

C) whether or not to take any external action

D) whether or not to initiate legal action

E) whether or not to complain to a government agency

55. A consumer's decision of whether or not to take action when he or she is dissatisfied is a function of which of the following?

A) importance of the purchase to the consumer

B) ease of taking action

C) consumer's existing level of overall satisfaction with the brand or outlet

D) characteristics of the consumer involved

E) all of the above

56. Even if a dissatisfied consumer takes no external action, which of the following is likely?

A) will engage in negative work-of-mouth

B) will stop buying that brand

C) will have a less favorable attitude toward the store or brand

D) will stop buying at that store

E) all of the above

57. Which of the following is true regarding word-of-mouth (WOM)?

A) WOM is a minor factor in consumer behavior.

B) Consumers trust WOM more than many other sources.

C) Satisfaction yields more WOM than does dissatisfaction.

D) Consumers do not give WOM much merit, especially negative WOM.

E) Marketers are not concerned about WOM.

58. Employees who deal directly with consumers are known as _____.

A) foot soldiers

B) clerks

C) consumer-level employees

D) front-line employees

E) primary employees

59. Savannah works at the front desk at a Marriott Hotel. If a guest has a complaint, she is empowered to make amends up to a certain amount without her supervisor's approval. Savannah is known as a _____.

A) decision maker

B) key employee

C) consumer-level employee

D) front-line employee

E) primary employee

60. _____ continue to buy the same brand though they do not have an emotional attachment to it.

A) Repeat purchasers

B) Brand loyals

C) Committed customers

D) Satisfied buyers

E) Referred buyers

61. Kevin buys the same brand of clothing all the time. He continues to buy it because it fits him well and the price is right, but he does not have an emotional attachment to it. Kevin is an example of a(n) _____.

A) trapped purchaser

B) committed customer

C) repeat purchaser

D) nonsatisfied customer

E) indifferent purchaser

62. The costs of finding, evaluating, and adopting another solution are known as _____.

A) incurred costs

B) switching costs

C) effort costs

D) balancing costs

E) committed costs

63. Sandy uses online banking, and her bank charges her $4.99 per month. However, she has seen ads for a competing bank offering free online banking services. She'd like to switch, but she realized that it might be difficult to do since she has several of her bill payments set up as automatic debits. The cost of changing to another bank represent Sandy's _____.

A) incurred costs

B) switching costs

C) effort costs

D) balancing costs

E) committed costs

64. Consumers that exhibit a positively biased behavior toward a specific brand are exhibiting _____.

A) brand loyalty

B) brand leverage

C) brand image

D) brand equity

E) brand bias

65. Jason will only drink Pepsi cola, and he feels an emotional attachment to it. That is the brand he was brought up on and is the one he continues to drink every day. Jason is exhibiting _____.

A) brand loyalty

B) brand leverage

C) brand image

D) brand equity

E) brand bias

66. Which type of customer has an emotional attachment to the brand or firm?

A) repeat purchaser

B) satisfied buyer

C) total buyer

D) committed customer

E) affective customer

67. George has used the same company for his car and home insurance for over 20 years. Any claim he has made has been handled fairly and quickly. A major hurricane came through his area causing many individuals, including George, and business owners to lose everything. While he was hearing about so many insurance claim nightmares, he knew his company would come through because he trusts this company. George is an example of a _____.

A) repeat purchaser

B) satisfied buyer

C) total buyer

D) committed customer

E) affective customer

68. Which of the following is FALSE regarding committed customers?

A) They are unlikely to consider additional information when making a purchase.

B) They are resistant to competitors' marketing efforts.

C) They are less likely to forgive an occasional product or service failure.

D) They are likely to be a source of positive word-of-mouth.

E) They are more profitable to the firm than mere repeat purchasers.

69. The term used to refer to turnover in a firm's customer base is _____.

A) turnover

B) churn

C) attrition rate

D) turn ratio

E) defection rate

70. Expenses associated with advertising, establishing a new account, and mailing catalogs are examples of _____.

A) churn

B) opportunity costs

C) switching costs

D) contribution costs

E) acquisition costs

71. Which of the following is a source of increased customer profitability over time?

A) increased sales volume

B) lower costs

C) referrals

D) price premium

E) all of the above

72. Which of the following is NOT a source of increased customer profitability over time?

A) increased sales volume

B) lower costs

C) referrals

D) increased churn

E) price premium

73. _____ refers to the fact that repeat and particularly committed customers tend to buy the brand consistently rather than waiting for a sale or continually negotiating price.

A) Acquisition cost

B) Referral

C) Price premium

D) Price indifferent

E) Price insensitive

74. For which type of firm has research shown that reducing the number of customers who leave by 5 percent resulted in the highest percentage increase in average profits per customer?

A) auto services

B) branch banks

C) insurance brokerage

D) industrial laundry

E) credit insurance

75. Marketing efforts focused on a firm's current customers are generally termed _____.

A) relationship marketing

B) internal marketing

C) personal marketing

D) formal marketing

E) acquisition marketing

76. An attempt to develop an ongoing, expanding exchange relationship with a firm's customers is called _____.

A) relationship marketing

B) internal marketing

C) personal marketing

D) formal marketing

E) acquisition marketing

77. Marriott Rewards customers earn points whenever they stay at any Marriott property. Louis is in this program, and he travels quite a bit because he works in sales. He usually stays at a Courtyard by Marriott, and when he walks into the lobby there is a sign by the desk welcoming him by name as well as other Marriott Rewards customers who might be staying there. This ongoing relationship between Louis and Marriott is an example of _____.

A) relationship marketing

B) internal marketing

C) personal marketing

D) formal marketing

E) acquisition marketing

78. Which of the following is a key element of relationship marketing?

A) Customizing the relationship to the individual customer.

B) Pricing in a manner to encourage loyalty.

C) Augmenting the core service or product with extra benefits.

D) Marketing to employees so that they will perform well for customers.

E) all of the above

79. Which of the following is NOT a key element of relationship marketing?

A) Developing a core service or product around which to build a customer relationship.

B) Pricing in a manner to encourage loyalty.

C) Augmenting the core service or product with extra benefits.

D) Marketing to employees so that they will perform well for customers.

E) Standardize the relationship across customers.

80. Every time Hannah buys a sandwich at Subway, she gets a stamp on a card. Once she has 10 stamps, she'll get a free sandwich. This is an example of a(n) _____.

A) food stamp program

B) acquisition program

C) customer loyalty program

D) tie-in program

E) overlay program

81. Nominal and most limited decision making will not produce postpurchase dissonance.

82. Consumers might experience guilt by the use of a product or a service.

83. Counterintuitive thinking refers to imagining the outcome if a different decision had been made in the past.

84. Sometimes consumers purchase products and do not use them.

85. Disposition of the product or the product's container may occur before, during, or after product use.

86. A consumer selling something to another individual through an online intermediary (i.e., eBay) is known as a consumer-to-consumer sale.

87. A consumer can be neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.

88. Functional performance relates to the physical functioning of the product.

89. If a customer is dissatisfied with a company's product, the company would prefer that he or she complains to the company.

90. Affective performance can arise from only the symbolic dimension of product performance.

91. Firms need to satisfy consumer expectations by creating reasonable expectations through promotional efforts and maintaining consistent quality so those expectations are fulfilled.

92. Repeat purchasers continue to buy the same brand because of their emotional attachment to it.

93. Committed customers are less likely to forgive a product or service failure.

94. Churn is a term used to refer to turnover in a firm's customer base.

95. For many products and services, there are wide variations in profitability across customers.

96. Many customer loyalty programs are designed to generate repeat purchases rather than committed customers.

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