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Manila Doctors College CAM bsa AT

Accounting

Manila Doctors College

CAM bsa

AT.M-1415

AUDIT EVIDENCE AND DOCUMENTATION

AUDIT EVIDENCE-MULTIPLE CHOICE PART I

1)All the information used by the auditor in arriving at the conclusion on which the audit opinion is based. It includes the information contained in the accounting records underlying the financial statements (underlying accounting data) and other information (corroborating information).

A.            Audit evidence C. Audit opinion

B.            Audit risk             D. Audit program

 

2.            Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement 1: Audit evidence comprises source documents and accounting records, underlying the financial statements and corroborating information from other sources.

 

Statement 2: Audit evidence is obtained to form an appropriate mix of tests of control and substantive procedures.

 

Statement 3: The auditor should obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence to be able to draw reasonable conclusions on which to base the audit opinion.

A.            Statements 1 and 2 only               C. Statement 2 and 3 only

B.            Statements 1 and 3 only               D. All statements are correct

 

3.            All of the following are underlying accounting data, except:

A.            Records of initial entries and supporting documents

B.            General and subsidiary ledgers

C.            Worksheets and spreadsheets for cost allocations D. Minutes of meetings

 

4.            The measure of the quantity of audit evidence is:

A.            Sufficiency          C. Appropriateness

B.            Competence      D. Relevance

 

5.            The measure of the quality of audit evidence is:

A.            Sufficiency          C. Appropriateness

B.            Competence      D. Relevance

 

6.            An evidence to be considered appropriate must be:

A.            Relevant              C. Reliable

B.            Relevant and reliable     D. Relevant or reliable

 

7.            The following statements are correct, except:

A.            The greater the risk of misstatement, the more audit evidence is likely to be required.

B.            The higher the quality of audit evidence, the less may be required.

C.            Obtaining more audit evidence will compensate for its poor quality.

D.            The sufficiency and appropriateness of audit evidence are interrelated.

 

8.            The appropriateness of audit evidence available to an auditor is least likely to be affected by:

A.            The relationship of the source or prepare of the evidence to the entity being audited.

B.            The relevance of the evidence to the financial statement assertion being investigated.

C.            The timeliness of the audit evidence.

D.            The sampling method employed by the auditor to obtain a sample of the evidence.

 

9.            The most reliable form of documentary evidence are those documents that are:

A.            Internally generated      C. Authorized by a responsible official

B.            Pre-numbered  D. Easily duplicated

 

10.          Which of the following procedures would provide the most reliable audit evidence?

A.            Inquiries of the client’s internal audit staff held in private

B.            Inspection of prenumbered client purchase orders filed in the vouchers payable department

C.            Analytical procedures performed by the auditor on the entity’s trial balance

D.            Inspection of bank statements obtained directly from the client’s financial institution

 

11.          Ultimately, what is sufficient appropriate audit evidence depends on:

A.            The users of the financial statements under audit.

B.            The professional judgment of the client’s management and those charged with governance.

C.            The professional judgment of the auditor.

D.            A combination of the professional judgment of the auditor and the client’s management.

 

12.          The auditor’s judgment as to what is sufficient appropriate audit evidence is influenced by such factors as:

A.            The auditor’s assessment of the nature and level of inherent risk at both the financial statement level and the account balance or class of transaction level.

B.            The nature of the internal control structure and the assessment of control risk.

C.            The materiality of the item being examined.

D.            The experience gained during previous audits.

E.            The results of the audit procedures, including fraud or error which may have been found.

F.            The source and reliability of information available.

 

A.            A, B, D, F, G        C. A, B, F

B.            A, B, D, E, F         D. A, B, C, D, E, F

 

13.          Which of the following statements regarding reliability of evidence is incorrect?

A.            Audit evidence is more reliable when it is obtained from independent sources outside the entity.

B.            The condition of internal control of the entity does not contribute to the reliability of audit evidence.

C.            Audit evidence that is generated internally is more reliable when the related controls are effective.

D.            Audit evidence obtained directly by the auditor is more reliable than audit evidence obtained indirectly.

 

14.          Which of the following is the least reliable evidence?

A.            Confirmation from third parties C. Documentary form evidence

B.            Observation of the inventory count        D. Photocopies and facsimiles

 

15.          Which of the following statement is/are correct?

Statement 1: The auditor considers the relationship between the cost of obtaining audit evidence and the usefulness of the information obtained.

 

Statement 2: The difficulty and the expense involved are valid basis of omitting an audit procedure for which there is no alternative.

 

Statement 3: The auditor relies on audit evidence that is persuasive rather than conclusive.

 

Statement 4: The auditor uses professional judgment and exercise professional scepticism to determine the sufficiency and appropriateness of evidence.

A.            Only one statement is correct    C. Only three statements are correct

B.            Only two statements are correct              D. All statements are correct

 

16.          Assertions used by the auditor fall into the following categories, except:

A.            Assertions about the faithful representations

B.            Assertions about account balances

C.            Assertions about classes of transactions and events

D.            Assertions about presentation and disclosure

 

17.          Management assertions are:

A.            Stated in the footnotes to the financial statements

B.            Implied or express representations about the accounts in the financial statements.

C.            Explicitly expressed representations about the financial statements.

D.            Provided to the auditor in the assertions letter, but are not disclosed in the financial statements.

 

18.          Management assertions are:

A.            Directly related to PSAs C. Directly related to GAAP

B.            Indirectly related to PSAs             D. Indirectly related to GAAP

 

19.          Assertions about account balances at the period-end include valuation and allocation, which means that

A.            Assets, liabilities and equity interest exist.

B.            All assets, liabilities and equity interests that should have been recorded have been recorded.

C.            Assets, liabilities and equity interests are included in the financial statements at appropriate amounts and any resulting valuation or allocation adjustments are appropriately recorded.

D.            The entity holds or controls the rights to assets, liabilities are the obligations of the entity.

 

20.          The assertion of cut-off means that:

A.            All transactions and events that should have been recorded

B.            Amounts and other data relating to recorded transactions and events have been recorded appropriately

C.            Transactions and events have been recorded in the correct accounting period

D.            Transactions and events have been recorded in the proper accounts.

 

21.          The assertion of occurrence means that:

A.            All transactions and events that should have been recorded are recorded

B.            Amounts and other data relating to recorded transactions and events have been recorded appropriately

C.            Transactions and events that have been recorded have occurred, and pertain to the entity

D.            Transactions and events have been recorded in the proper accounts

 

22.          Which description refers to the completeness assertion?

A.            All disclosures that should have been included in the financial statements have been included.

B.            Disclosed events, transactions and other matters have occurred and pertain to the entity,

C.            Financial information is appropriately presented and described, and disclosures are clearly expressed.

D.            Financial and other information are disclosed fairly and at appropriate amounts.

 

 

23.          Confirming proper title to equipment supports which of the following assertions?

A.            Existence or occurrence                C. Presentation and disclosure

B.            Insurance or coverage   D. Rights and obligations

 

24.          Which of the following ultimately determines the auditing procedures necessary in an audit engagement?

A.            Auditor judgment            C. Relative risk

B.            Materiality          D. Reasonable assurance

 

25.          The completeness assertion addresses whether

A.            All of the assets on the balance sheet exist.

B.            All recorded transactions occurred.

C.            The entity has property rights to all assets on the balance sheet.

D.            All of the transactions, which occurred during the period, were recorded.

 

26.          The auditor notices that a client’s cash basis financial statements are prepared with accrual basis financial titles. This situation bears on which financial statement assertion?

A.            Valuation or allocation   C. Rights and obligations

B.            Presentation and disclosure        D. Completeness

 

27.          When vouching,

A.            The direction of the test is from recorded item back to the underlying support.

B.            A complete examination of the transactions in the account is performed.

C.            Recomputations are performed.

D.            The auditor selects a transaction and follows it forward to recording in the accounting records.

 

28.          Which of the following statements relating to the competence of evidential matter is always true?

A.            Evidence gathered by auditors must be both valid and relevant to be considered competent.

B.            Properly designed analytical procedures will detect material misstatements.

C.            Evidential matter gathered by an auditor from outside a client is reliable.

D.            Oral representations made by management are not valid.

 

29.          The process of vouching helps establish that all recorded transactions

A.            Have been completed   C. Are valid

B.            Are complete    D. Are presented properly

 

30.          Acts to be performed in order to obtain audit evidence

A.            Audit standards                C. Audit program

B.            Audit procedures             D. Audit strategy

 

 

31.          Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of audit procedures?

A.            To detect fraud

B.            To comply with generally accepted accounting principles

C.            To gather corroborative evidence to support the audit opinion

D.            To verify the accuracy of account balances

 

32.          Audit procedures performed to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control.

A.            Risk assessment procedures       C. Substantive procedures

B.            Tests of control D. Analytical procedures

 

33.          Audit procedures to test the operating effectiveness in preventing or detecting and correcting material misstatements at the assertion level.

A.            Risk assessment procedures       C. Substantive procedures

B.            Tests of control D. Analytical procedures

 

34.          Audit procedures to detect material misstatements at the assertion level.

A.            Risk assessment procedures       C. Substantive procedures

C. Tests of control            D. Analytical procedures

 

35.          Which of the following procedures is not required to be performed by the auditor?

A.            Risk assessment procedures       C. Substantive procedures

B.            Tests of control D. Analytical procedures

 

36.          It includes test of details of classes of transactions, account balances, and disclosures and analytical procedures.

A.            Risk assessment procedures       C. Substantive procedures

B.            Tests of control D. Analytical procedures

 

37.          Test of controls are necessary to be performed:

A.            When auditor’s risk assessment includes an expectation of the operating effectiveness of controls.

B.            When substantive procedures alone do not provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence.

C.            Both a and b

D.            No circumstance will require tests of controls.

 

38.          Examining records or documents, whether internal or external, in paper form, electronic form, or other media.

A.            Inspection of records or documents        C. Observation

B.            Inspection of tangible assets      D. Inquiry

 

 

39.          Physical examination of the assets.

A.            Inspection of records or documents        C. Observation

B.            Inspection of tangible assets      D. Inquiry

 

40.          Consists of looking at a process or procedures being performed by others.

A.            Inspection of records or documents        C. Observation

B.            Inspection of tangible assets      D. Inquiry

 

41.          Consists of seeking information from knowledgeable persons, both financial and nonfinancial, within the entity or outside the entity.

A.            Inspection of records or documents        C. Observation

B.            Inspection of tangible assets      D. Inquiry

 

42.          The process of obtaining a representation of information or of an existing condition directly from third party. It is a specific type of inquiry.

A.            Reperformance                C. Reconciliation

B.            Confirmation     D. Recomputation

 

43.          Consists of checking the mathematical accuracy of documents or records.

A.            Reperformance                C. Reconciliation

B.            Recalculation     D. Recomputation

 

44.          Auditor’s independent execution of procedures or controls that were originally performed as part of the entity’s internal control.

A.            Reperformance                C. Reconciliation

B.            Confirmation     D. Recomputation

 

45.          Evaluation of financial information made by study of plausible relationships among both financial and non-financial data.

A.            Reperformance                C. Reconciliation

B.            Confirmation     D. Analytical procedures

 

46.          Which statement is incorrect regarding the nature of further audit procedures?

A.            The nature of further audit procedures refers to their purpose and type.

B.            Certain audit procedures may be more appropriate for some assertions than others.

C.            The auditor is required to obtain audit evidence about the accuracy and completeness of information produced by the entity’s information system when that information is used in performing audit procedures.

D.            The higher the auditor’s assessment of inherent and control risks, the less reliable and relevant is the audit evidence sought by the auditor from substantive procedures.

 

 

47.          The more the planned reliance of the auditor on the operating effectiveness of internal controls,

A.            The more the extent of the auditor’s tests of controls.

B.            The less the extent of the auditor’s tests of controls.

C.            The more the reliance of the auditor on information generated by the entity.

D.            The less the reliance of the auditor on information generated by the entity.

 

48.          In the context of an audit of financial statements, substantive tests are audit procedures that

A.            May be eliminated under certain conditions.

B.            Are designed to discover significant subsequent events.

C.            May be either tests of transactions, direct tests of financial balances, or analytical tests.

D.            Will increase proportionately with the auditor’s reliance on internal control.

 

49.          Which of the following methods is considered the best combination in obtaining audit evidence assuming documentary evidence is available to the auditor?

 

A.            Inspection and reperformance  C. Inquiry and inspection

B.            Observation and inquiry               D. Inquiry and analytical procedures

 

50.          As required by PSA 500, the auditor’s substantive procedures should include the following:

A.            Agreeing the financial statements to the underlying accounting records.

B.            Examining material journal entries and other adjustments made during the course of preparing the financial statements.

C.            Both a and b.

D.            Neither a nor b.

 

51.          “Physical examination” is the inspection or count by the auditor of assets such as:

A.            Cash or inventory only

B.            Cash, inventory, cancelled checks, and sales documents

C.            Cash, inventory, securities, notes receivable, and tangible assets

D.            Cash, inventory, cancelled checks, and tangible fixed assets

 

52.          Physical examination of tangible assets is not a sufficient form of evidence when the auditor wants to determine the:

A.            Existence of the asset    C. Condition or quality of the asset

B.            Quantity and description of the asset     D. Ownership of the asset

 

53.          Which of the following audit procedures is used extensively throughout the audit but does not, by itself, provide sufficient appropriate evidence?

A.            Inspection of records or documents        C. Inquiry

B.            Observation       D. Inspection of tangible assets

 

54.          Evidence obtained directly by the auditor is more reliable than information obtained indirectly. Which of the following is not an example of the auditor’s direct knowledge?

A.            Inspection           C. Computation

B.            Observation       D. Inquiry

 

55.          Confirmation is most likely to be the relevant form of evidence with regard to assertions about accounts receivable when the auditor has concerns about the receivables’

A.            Valuation             C. Existence

B.            Classification      D. Completeness

 

56.          Confirmation is the process of obtaining a representation of information or of an existing condition directly from a third party. Traditionally, confirmation is used to verify:

A.            Individual transactions between organizations, such as sales transactions.

B.            Fixed asset additions.

C.            Bank balances and accounts receivables.

D.            All three of the above.

 

57.          Who signs the confirmation requests:

A.            The appropriate level of management   C. The CEO/CFO of the client

 

B.            The audit partner             D. Both management and the auditor

 

58.          A confirmation requests letter should always be sent under the control of:

A.            The client            C. The recipient

B.            The auditor         D. Both a and b

 

59.          Negative confirmation requests may be used when:

A.            The assessed levels of inherent and control risks are high

B.            A large number of large balances is involved

C.            A substantial number of errors is expected

D.            The auditor has no reason to believe that the respondents will disregard these requests

 

60.          When the recipient has accomplished the confirmation request, replies should be:

A.            Sent directly to the auditor

B.            Sent directly to the client, after which the client gives the replies to the auditor

C.            Sent directly to the auditor, with another copy of the reply going to the client

D.            Not sent back since a confirmation request does not necessitate replies

 

61.          Where no response is received to a positive confirmation request, the auditor should

A.            Contact the recipient to elicit a response and perform alternative procedures as necessary

B.            Issue a qualified opinion or an adverse opinion, depending on the materiality involved

C.            Issue a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion on grounds of a scope limitation

D.            Contact the recipient/respondent in order to force a response from such recipient

 

62.          The primary source for evidence to corroborate the existence of pending litigation is:

A.            Vendor confirmations    C. management representation letters

B.            Disclosures in financial statements           D. attorney confirmations

 

63.          The following are purposes of analytical procedures, except:

A.            Assist the auditor in planning the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures B. As a test to obtain audit evidence about the suitability of design and effective operation of internal controls.

C. As a substantive procedure when their use can be more effective or efficient that tests of details in reducing detection risk for specific financial statement assertions

D. As an overall review of the financial statements in the final review stage of the audit.

 

64.          Where there are unusual fluctuations and relationships ordinarily begins with inquiries of management, followed by

                A             B             C             D

•             Corroboration of management’s responses        Yes         No          Yes         No

•             Consideration of the need to apply other audit

procedures based on the results of management            

Yes        

Yes        

No         

No

inquiries                                                              

 

65.          Evidential matter consists of both underlying accounting data and corroborating information, which support the accounting data. Which of the following is considered corroborating information?

A.            Data files             C. Subsidiary ledgers

B.            Records of electronic fund transfers       D. General ledger

 

66.          As the acceptable level of detection risk decreases, an auditor may change the

A.            Timing of substantive tests by performing them at an interim date rather than at year- end

B.            Nature of substantive tests from a less effective to a more effective procedure

C.            Timing of tests of controls by performing them at several dates rather than one time

D.            Assessed level of inherent risk to a higher amount

 

67.          Analytical procedures are

A.            Substantive tests designed to evaluate a system of internal control

B.            Tests of controls designed to evaluate the validity of management’s representation letter

C.            Substantive tests designed to evaluate the reasonableness of financial information.

D.            Tests of controls to evaluate the reasonableness of financial information.

68.          Which of the following is designed to detect possible material peso misstatements in the financial statements?

A.            Tests of controls               C. Computer controls

B.            Analytical procedures    D. Post audit working paper review

 

69.          In testing for lower-of-cost-or-net realizable value, the auditor is gathering evidence to support which of the following assertions?

A.            Pricing   C. Valuation       

B.            Accuracy              D. Rights and obligations

 

70.          When performing trend analysis,

A.            Profitability ratios are required  C. Comparison to budget may be performed

B.            Expected values are calculated  D. Solvency ratios are computed

 

 

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