Florida International University

BIO PCB 4023

Chapter 9

1)What type of glial cells plays a critical role in maintaining extracellular potassium levels?

1. 1. ependymal cells
   2. Schwann cells
   3. microglia
   4. astrocytes
   5. oligodendrocytes
2. What type of glial cell is necessary for normal development of the blood-brain barrier?
   1. microglia
   2. astrocytes
   3. Schwann cells
   4. oligodendrocytes
   5. ependymal cells
3. Alzheimer's disease is caused by the loss of   neurons in certain brain areas and replacement of the lost neurons with scar tissue called    .
   1. cholinergic : myelin
   2. adrenergic : plaques
   3. cholinergic : plaques
   4. muscarinic : myelin
   5. adrenergic : myelin
4. What type of glial cell is a phagocyte?
   1. astrocyte
   2. microglia
   3. Schwann cell
   4. ependymal cell
   5. oligodendrocyte
5. Which of the following protects the soft tissues of the brain?
   1. cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
   2. the meninges
   3. the cranium
   4. cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and the cranium
   5. cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), the meninges, and the cranium

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6. Which statement best describes why the brain requires an uninterrupted supply of blood?
   1. The CNS has limited glycogen to convert to glucose, it does not have access to fatty acids for energy, and it has limited ability to produce energy anaerobically.
   2. The CNS has a limited ability to produce energy anaerobically.
   3. The CNS has very little glycogen to convert to glucose.
   4. The CNS does not have access to fatty acids for energy, which increases their demand for glucose.
   5. The CNS has very little glycogen to convert to glucose and has limited ability to produce energy anaerobically.

7. What symptom of stroke distinguishes it from other neurological disorders?
   1. tingling sensations in the extremities
   2. muscle weakness
   3. loss of vision
   4. paralysis
   5. sudden onset
8. Tight junctions between capillary endothelial cells in the central nervous system create the blood-brain

barrier, thereby restricting what type of movement of molecules into the brain?

8. 1. diffusion of hydrophilic
   2. active transport of
   3. transcytosis of
   4. facilitated diffusion of hydrophobic
   5. diffusion of lipophilic
9. In order for ions to move across the capillary endothelial cells of the blood-brain barrier, they must
   1. be transported across endothelial cells.
   2. be hydrophilic.
   3. be lipophobic.
   4. move through the endothelial cell layer by transcytosis.
   5. move through pores between endothelial cells.
10. Which of the following substances requires mediated transport to cross the blood-brain barrier?
    1. glucose
    2. oxygen
    3. ethanol
    4. carbon dioxide
    5. hydrogen ions
11. What type of glucose transporter is located in the endothelial cells of the blood-brain barrier?
    1. GLUT-4
    2. cotransporter with sodium
    3. GLUT-2
    4. countertransporter with sodium
    5. GLUT-1  2
12. Insulin is known to cross the blood-brain barrier and attach to receptors in the brain. Which statement best describes the function of insulin in the brain?
    1. It assists in glucose metabolism.
    2. It causes stroke.
    3. It increases hunger.
    4. It signals the brain to release glucagon.
    5. It decreases hunger.
13. What is the function of gray matter in the CNS?
    1. to communicate between the different lobes of the brain
    2. to speed up nerve transmission
    3. neural integration and synaptic communication
    4. to carry information in tracts from the peripheral nervous system to the CNS
    5. signals the brain centers to produce dopamine
14. What are the fibers that connect the cortical regions on one side of the brain with the corresponding cortical region on the other side of the brain?
    1. commissural fibers
    2. association fibers
    3. projection fibers
    4. spinothalamic tracts
    5. arcuate fasciculi
15. Physicians administer drugs or do spinal taps in the lumbar region of the spine. Which statement best describes why the lumbar region of the spine is used for such procedures?
    1. It is due to the anatomical feature of projection fibers that connect the spinal cord with the brain so the drugs will make it to the brain.

15. 2. This is where the dorsal and ventral roots are located and drugs administered to the roots are more effective.
    3. It is due to the anatomical feature known as the cauda equina (Latin "horse tail"), meaning the spinal cord spreads out into individual nerves and the physician is less likely to harm the spinal cord.
    4. Patients are less sensitive in this area of the back.
    5. It is because of gravity; the CFS has more pressure in the lumbar region of the spine.
16. Which of the following would consist of white matter?
    1. dorsal horn of the spinal cord
    2. dorsal columns of the spinal cord
    3. basal nuclei
    4. ventral horn of the spinal cord
    5. cerebral cortex

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17. Through physical examination, neurologists can easily determine which spinal nerve has been damaged and at what level in the spinal cord an injury has occurred due to mapping out the various sensory regions called
    1. projection fibers.
    2. dermatomes.
    3. ganglia.
    4. association fibers.
    5. commissural fibers.

18. The face is innervated by what type of nerves?
    1. lumbar B) thoracic C) cervical D) sacral E) cranial
19. Which spinal nerves originate in the neck region?
    1. lumbar nerves
    2. cervical nerves
    3. sacral nerves
    4. thoracic nerves
    5. coccygeal nerve
20. Which nerves innervate the anterior thigh?
    1. thoracic nerves
    2. sacral nerves
    3. cranial nerves
    4. cervical nerves
    5. lumbar nerves
21. Afferent and efferent axons travel together in spinal nerves, but they separate into different bundles when they leave and enter the spinal cord. The afferent axons enter the spinal cord via the     root and efferent axons leave the spinal cord via the                                    root.
    1. canal : spindle
    2. ventral : dorsal
    3. dorsal : ventral
    4. ascending : descending
    5. descending : ascending
22. Which of the following is a descending tract?
    1. anterior pyramidal tract
    2. spinotectal tract
    3. lateral spinothalamic tract
    4. anterior spinothalamic tract
    5. dorsal columns

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23. An ascending or descending pathway that is located on the same side of the central nervous system integration center is called
    1. commissural.
    2. lateralized.
    3. longitudinal.
    4. contralateral.
    5. ipsilateral.
24. Which area of the brain plays an important role in sleep-wake cycles, arousal of the cerebral cortex, and consciousness?
    1. cerebellum
    2. temporal lobe
    3. reticular formation
    4. diencephalon
    5. frontal lobes
25. Which cranial nerve controls the muscles for chewing?
    1. oculomotor
    2. trochlear
    3. trigeminal
    4. abducens
    5. glossopharyngeal
26. Which cranial nerve controls eye movements, papillary reflex, accommodation reflex, and proprioception?
    1. oculomotor
    2. trochlear
    3. trigeminal
    4. abducens
    5. glossopharyngeal
27. Which cranial nerve controls the motor control of swallowing and salivary glands and taste?
    1. oculomotor
    2. trochlear
    3. trigeminal
    4. abducens
    5. glossopharyngeal
28. Which cerebral lobe contains the visual cortex?
    1. frontal B) parietal C) temporal D) medial E) occipital
29. Which cerebral lobe contains the auditory cortex?
    1. temporal B) frontal C) medial D) occipital E) parietal

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30. The              lobe contains the primary motor cortex, which initiates    movement.
    1. frontal lobe : voluntary
    2. occipital lobe : involuntary
    3. parietal lobe : voluntary
    4. temporal lobe : involuntary
    5. medial lobe : voluntary
31. In the motor and sensory homunculi, each body part is shown next to the area of cerebral cortex devoted to it. Which statement best describes what these homunculi represent?
    1. The relative size of the body parts corresponds to the ascending and descending tracts that control that body part.

31. 2. The relative size of the body part distinguishes which part is primarily on the right side of the brain versus the left.
    3. The relative size of the body part represents the relative size of the cortical area devoted to that body part.
    4. The homunculi map out the dermatomes of the body.
    5. The homunculi are open to interpretation by neurologists, based upon his or her area of specialty.
32. Which of the following characteristics is NOT a specialization of the right side of the cerebrum in most individuals?
    1. logic
    2. artistic qualities
    3. creativity
    4. musical
    5. spatial perception
33. Which of the following characteristics is NOT a specialization of the left side of the cerebrum in most individuals?
    1. comprehension of language
    2. expression of language
    3. analytical reasoning
    4. logical reasoning
    5. spatial perception

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34. An epileptic patient has undergone a complete corpus callosotomy, a surgical procedure that results in the complete disconnection of the corpus callosum. Which statement best describes the behaviors you would observe in this type of patient?
    1. Since communication between the hemispheres has been disconnected, the patient cannot name what the right side of the brain is seeing.
    2. This area of the brain controls higher-order thinking therefore the patient will have no interest in solving problems.
    3. This area of the brain determines personality therefore the patient will undergo changes in personality, usually becoming more aggressive.
    4. Since communication between the hemispheres has been disconnected, the patient will be unable to speak; you must have both sides of the brain working in order to form words.
    5. This area of the brain controls the ability to see things in three dimensions; it is likely this patient will always be running into items.

35. What region of the diencephalon filters and refines sensory information, allowing us to direct our attention to specific external stimuli?
    1. hypothalamus
    2. basal nuclei
    3. thalamus
    4. putamen
    5. limbic system
36. This area of the brain is often referred to as the "control center" because it plays an important role in regulating homeostasis. It is involved in hunger, thirst, thermoregulation, and many other important homeostatic measures.
    1. cerebellum
    2. cerebral cortex
    3. thalamus
    4. hypothalamus
    5. limbic system
37. The              plays a principle role in establishing the circadian rhythm of the body.

37. 1. putamen
    2. suprachiasmatic nucleus
    3. caudate nucleus
    4. globus pallidus
    5. cingulate gyrus
38. Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus?
    1. affects emotions and behaviors in response to emotions
    2. contains the cardiovascular control centers
    3. communication between the nervous and endocrine system
    4. controls hunger and thirst
    5. controls thermoregulation

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39. Where is the thermoregulatory center?
    1. hippocampus
    2. hypothalamus
    3. medulla oblongata
    4. pons
    5. amygdala
40. Which region of the limbic system is primarily involved in the emotion of fear?
    1. amygdala
    2. fornix
    3. hippocampus
    4. cingulate gyrus
    5. thalamus
41. What area of the brain is often referred to as the "primitive brain" due to its association with very basic human drives such as aggression, fear, and the sense of smell?
    1. hypothalamus
    2. cerebellum
    3. cerebral cortex
    4. thalamus
    5. limbic system
42. How is a reflex that requires communication with the brain classified?
    1. visceral B) spinal C) cranial D) somatic E) innate
43. How is a reflex that involves signals sent along autonomic sensory nerves classified?
    1. visceral B) spinal C) cranial D) somatic E) innate
44. How is a reflex with which we are born classified?
    1. visceral B) spinal C) cranial D) somatic E) innate
45. How is a reflex that requires only a single synapse between two neurons classified?
    1. bisynaptic
    2. polysynaptic
    3. bineuronal
    4. polyneuronal
    5. monosynaptic

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46. Which of the following does NOT describe a type of reflex that occurred when Pavlov's dogs salivated in response to the ringing of a bell?
    1. conditioned

46. 2. polysynaptic
    3. visceral
    4. cranial
    5. spinal
47. Which of the following reflexes is a monosynaptic reflex found in the human body?
    1. pupillary light
    2. crossed-extensor
    3. muscle spindle stretch
    4. crossed-flexor
    5. withdrawal
48. The withdrawal reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?
    1. warm receptor
    2. photoreceptor
    3. muscle spindle stretch receptor
    4. nociceptor
    5. taste receptor
49. The crossed-extensor reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?
    1. warm receptor
    2. muscle spindle stretch receptor
    3. taste receptor
    4. photoreceptor
    5. nociceptor
50. In response to stepping on a nail, the crossed-extensor reflex causes
    1. flexion of the leg opposite the side of receptor activation.
    2. extension of the arm on the side of receptor activation.
    3. flexion of the leg on the side of receptor activation.
    4. extension of the leg opposite the side of receptor activation.
    5. extension of the leg on the side of receptor activation.
51. The execution of a voluntary motor task involves a series of steps. Which of the following presents those steps in the correct order?
    1. intent, program, execute, feedback
    2. intent, feedback, program, execute
    3. program, intent, feedback, execute
    4. feedback, intent, program, execute
    5. program, intent, execute, feedback

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52. What two tracts control skeletal muscle activity?
    1. spinocerebellar and spinothalmic
    2. fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus
    3. tectospinal and spinothalamic
    4. pyramidal and rubrospinal tracts
    5. reticular spinal and corticospinal
53. The lower motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle, and induce them to contract, originate from the
    1. basal nuclei.
    2. motor cortex.
    3. ventral horn of the spinal cord.
    4. pyramidal tract.
    5. dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

54. What neural pathway provides for the control of fine, discrete movements of the extremities?
    1. pyramidal tract
    2. rubrospinal tract
    3. spinothalamic tract
    4. reticularspinal tract
    5. tectospinal tract
55. The primary function of the ventromedial pathways is on the muscles of the
    1. knee, ankle, and foot.
    2. trunk, neck, and proximal portions of the limb.
    3. fingers, wrists, and toes.
    4. stomach, back, and buttocks.
    5. ears, eyes, and mouth.
56. What is the function of the tectospinal tract?
    1. transmits impulses associated with hearing
    2. transmits impulses associated with pain
    3. controls the head, neck, and lumbar muscles in order to maintain posture
    4. controls the head so that the eyes can follow and object
    5. controls muscle tone
57. Threading a needle or a fishing hook would involve which of the following tracts?
    1. tectospinal
    2. vestibulospinal
    3. pyramidal
    4. spinocerebellar
    5. reticulospinal

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58. Which of the following areas of the brain is involved in coordinated movement?
    1. cortex
    2. pineal gland
    3. brainstem nuclei
    4. cerebellum
    5. thalamus
59. Damage to the cerebellum will lead to which of the following symptoms?
    1. an inability to accurately plan a movement
    2. the generation of slow, fine movements only
    3. the generation of movement of large muscle groups only
    4. the generation of clumsy, poorly directed movements
    5. a complete inability to move (lack of execution)
60. A characteristic sign of cerebellar damage which involves a violent shaking motion that becomes worse as the limb gets closer to its target is called a(n)      tremor.
    1. postural B) action C) intention D) kinetic E) rest
61. What anatomical feature of the brain has a similar function to that of the cerebellum?
    1. basal nuclei
    2. amygdala
    3. cingulate gyrus
    4. corpus callosum
    5. choroid plexus
62. Huntington's disease is one of the few dominant genetic disorders that causes exaggerated involuntary jerking motions and progressive dementia. What area of the brain is primarily responsible for these

symptoms?

62. 1. basal nuclei
    2. corpus callosum
    3. amygdala
    4. choroid plexus
    5. cingulate gyrus
63. Parkinson's disease appears to target   cells within the          .
    1. cholinergic : red nuclei
    2. adrenergic : red nuclei
    3. dopaminergic : substantia nigra
    4. cholinergic : substantia nigra
    5. adrenergic : substantia nigra

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64. What area of the brain controls language comprehension?
    1. limbic system
    2. Wernicke's area
    3. amygdala
    4. Broca's area
    5. hypothalamus
65. You're interviewing a patient who has recently had a stroke. You ask her to state her name and house address. She appears to understand your question, but when she tries to answer, she stutters and slurs her words, which are not grammatically correct. What type of aphasia is your patient displaying?
    1. global B) isolation C) Broca's D) Wernicke's E) anomic
66. You're interviewing a patient who has recently had a stroke. You ask him to state his name and house address. He has no response. You write down your question and have him read it. His reply is "yesterday morrow soon." What type of aphasia is your patient displaying?
    1. global B) isolation C) Broca's D) Wernicke's E) anomic
67. If a bilingual person has a stroke in the language centers of the brain, which statement best describes the likely outcome of recovering one of the languages?
    1. The most recently learned language will not be affected.
    2. The person is most likely to speak both languages within the same sentence.
    3. The most recently learned language will suffer the greatest deficit.
    4. The most recently learned language will suffer the greatest unless both languages were learned at about the same time in which case both languages will be equally affected.
    5. If both languages were learned at about the same time, then the two languages will be equally affected.

68. Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a function of sleep?
    1. to enhance immune function
    2. to conserve energy
    3. mental practicing while dreaming
    4. to facilitate long-term memory
    5. to clear short-term memory
69. Your roommate not only talks in her sleep but also sleepwalks. Which statement best describe what sleep phase she is in?
    1. slow-wave sleep (SWS) or non-REM sleep
    2. REM sleep
    3. stage 1 high-frequency sleep
    4. delta phase sleep
    5. stage 4 high-frequency sleep

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70. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of slow-wave sleep?
    1. increased parasympathetic activity
    2. elaborate and intense dreams
    3. snoring
    4. decreased muscle tone
    5. decreased brain activity
71. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep?
    1. decreased limbic system activity
    2. increased brain activity
    3. illogical and bizarre thoughts
    4. increased parasympathetic activity
    5. loss of postural muscle tone
72. During an initial interview, a patient tells you that he is having intense bizarre nightmares but awakens spontaneously. What phase of sleep would you tell the physician the patient has described to you?
    1. stage 1 high-frequency sleep
    2. slow-wave sleep (SWS) or non-REM sleep
    3. stage 4 high-frequency sleep
    4. delta phase sleep
    5. REM sleep
73. A new mother is visiting the pediatrician because her baby is sleeping up to 17 hours a day. She jokes with the doctor that her husband, who is quite older than she, sleeps only 5 hours a day and seems fully rested. Which of the following would be the most likely response from the physician?
    1. "The normal sleep cycle is 8 hours. We need to hospitalize your baby for observation."
    2. "Your baby is fine. It is normal for babies to sleep up to 17 hours a day. However, you probably need to send your husband to a doctor since a person needs to sleep at least 8 hours a day."
    3. "Your baby is sleeping too much, but since your husband is up, have him play with the baby."
    4. "Your baby is fine. It is normal for babies to sleep up to 17 hours a day. By the way, it is also normal for older adults to need less sleep as they age."
    5. "I will refer you to a sleep center as both your baby and husband need to be evaluated for sleep disorders."

74. When your mind is "racing" at night and you cannot fall asleep what, region of the brain is keeping you awake?
    1. forebrain
    2. reticular formation
    3. cerebellum
    4. pons
    5. limbic system

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75. Which statement best describes why nicotine should be avoided before going to bed?
    1. Nicotine should not be avoided before bed; it will help relax you before going to sleep.
    2. It binds to receptors in the corpus callosum, which stimulates both sides of the brain.
    3. Nicotine is a depressant and, therefore, negative feedback speeds up your heart and respiratory systems, which keep you from relaxing.
    4. Nicotine mimics acetylcholine, which is associated with the ascending reticular activating system.
    5. It binds to receptors in the cerebral cortex, which is involved in wake/sleep cycles.
76. Which of the following is known to cause drowsiness?
    1. aspirin
    2. antihistamines

76. 3. vitamin D
    4. vitamin B12
    5. birth control pills
77. When you're awake and alert, an EEG shows a pattern of high-frequency, low-amplitude oscillations known as   . When you're awake but resting, the EEG shifts to a new pattern of lower-frequency,

higher-amplitude waves known as     .

77. 1. delta waves : theta waves
    2. sigmoid waves : electromagnetic waves
    3. alpha waves : beta waves
    4. beta waves : alpha waves
    5. theta waves : delta waves
78. During rapid eye movement sleep, there is a(n) in frequency of the electroencephalogram and a(n)

              in arousal threshold.

78. 1. increase : increase
    2. decrease : increase
    3. decrease : decrease
    4. increase : decrease
    5. stabilization : decrease
79. Rapid eye movement (REM) is called paradoxical sleep because
    1. electroencephalogram activity reverts toward that observed in an awake, alert person.
    2. electroencephalogram activity can change quite extensively during REM sleep.
    3. people are less likely to awaken spontaneously during REM sleep when arousal threshold is lowest.
    4. electroencephalogram activity is quite different from slow-wave sleep.
    5. people are more likely to awaken spontaneously during REM sleep when arousal threshold is highest.

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80. If you tend to remember your dreams, what stage of sleep are you in and what time of the night are the dreams likely occurring?
    1. REM sleep and late into the sleep cycle, or prior to waking in the morning
    2. REM sleep during the alternating patterns of REM
    3. REM sleep and early in the sleep cycle, or just as you make your way into REM sleep
    4. slow-wave sleep during stage 1, or just as you fall asleep
    5. slow-wave sleep during stage 4, or in deep sleep just before you go into REM sleep
81. What emotion is the strongest motivation predictor?
    1. pleasure B) anger C) depression D) aggression E) fear
82. The euphoria that is perceived when one ingests drugs such as opioids or amphetamines results from the activation of the     system.
    1. adrenergic
    2. dopaminergic
    3. nitridergic
    4. cholinergic
    5. sympathetic
83. What emotion drives addiction?
    1. fear B) anger C) pleasure D) aggression E) depression
84. In studying for this exam you acquired new knowledge and hopefully retained it. If you used a repetitive approach such as studying from note cards, this type of learning is referred to as       . If you studied using, for example, the same information but linked to a case study, this type of learning is referred to as

             .

1. 1. associative : nonassociative

84. 2. declarative : procedural
    3. procedural : nonprocedural
    4. nonprocedural : procedural
    5. nonassociative : associative
85. You go to the library to study for an exam only to find that parts of the library are being remodeled, creating many distracting noises. However, you decide to stay and complete your studies at the library because you

have recently learned about     , or a decrease in response to a repeated stimulus, such as the noises coming from the remodeling process.

1. 1. plasticity
   2. consolidation
   3. habituation
   4. sensitization
   5. declaration

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86. The transitioning of a memory from short term to long term is called
    1. memorizing.
    2. plasticity.
    3. consolidation.
    4. remembering.
    5. declaration.
87. The ability of the nervous system to alter its anatomy and function in response to changes in its activity pattern is called
    1. memorizing.
    2. remembering.
    3. consolidation.
    4. declaration.
    5. plasticity.
88. In long-term potentiation, the enhanced possibility that an activated postsynaptic membrane will generate an action potential is associated with a(n)
    1. decrease in its threshold.
    2. reduction in the number of IPSPs.
    3. increase in its threshold.
    4. increased strength of the EPSPs.
    5. increased number of EPSPs.
89. The increased influx of calcium at a postsynaptic terminal with glutamate receptors
    1. causes a greater release of neurotransmitter from the postsynaptic cell.
    2. activates a protein kinase that phosphorylates the AMPA receptor, making it more sensitive to glutamate.
    3. activates the NMDA receptor to increase calcium influx.
    4. activates a protein kinase that phosphorylates the NMDA receptor, making it more sensitive to glutamate.
    5. activates the AMPA receptor to increase sodium influx.
90. In addition to an increase in sensitivity to glutamate, the binding of large amounts of glutamate to its receptors on the postsynaptic membrane also
    1. affects other synapses that are close to the first.
    2. can overwhelm the synapse.
    3. directly causes more NMDA channels to open.
    4. stimulates presynaptic autoreceptors and enhances its release.
    5. stimulates the release of a paracrine messenger that further increases glutamate release.

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91. A stroke occurring in the basal nuclei could produce which of the following symptoms?
    1. loss of language comprehension
    2. blindness or blurred vision
    3. deafness
    4. muscle rigidity
    5. altered sleep-wake patterns
92. Which of the following is a phagocytic cell that protects the central nervous system from pathogens?
    1. microglia
    2. Schwann cell
    3. astrocyte
    4. ependymal cell
    5. oligodendrocyte
93. Which of the following forms myelin in the central nervous system?
    1. microglia
    2. Schwann cell
    3. astrocyte
    4. ependymal cell
    5. oligodendrocyte
94. Which of the following is the only glial cell located in the peripheral nervous system?
    1. microglia
    2. Schwann cell
    3. astrocyte
    4. ependymal cell
    5. oligodendrocyte
95. Which of the following provides support for development of the blood-brain barrier?
    1. microglia
    2. Schwann cell
    3. astrocyte
    4. ependymal cell
    5. oligodendrocyte
96. Which of the following degrades certain neurotransmitters?
    1. microglia
    2. Schwann cell
    3. astrocyte
    4. ependymal cell
    5. oligodendrocyte

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97. Which of the following enhances the conduction velocity of neurons in the central nervous system?
    1. microglia
    2. Schwann cell
    3. astrocyte
    4. ependymal cell
    5. oligodendrocyte
98. The perception of touch sensations begins in which area of the brain?
    1. limbic system
    2. primary somatosensory cortex
    3. primary motor cortex
    4. cerebellum

98. 5. basal nuclei
99. The perception of vision begins in which area of the brain?
    1. primary visual cortex
    2. basal nuclei
    3. Broca's area
    4. primary auditory cortex
    5. cerebellum
100. Which area of the brain relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex?

1. hypothalamus
2. thalamus
3. cerebellum
4. basal nuclei
5. corpus callosum

101. Which area of the brain is the integration center for neural and endocrine controls?

1. hypothalamus
2. thalamus
3. basal nuclei
4. corpus callosum
5. cerebellum

102. Hunger and satiety centers are located in which area of the brain?

1. hypothalamus
2. thalamus
3. basal nuclei
4. corpus callosum
5. cerebellum

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103. Thermoregulatory centers are located in which area of the brain?

1. hypothalamus
2. thalamus
3. basal nuclei
4. corpus callosum
5. cerebellum

104. Which area of the brain contains the ascending reticular activating system?

1. thalamus
2. brain stem
3. cerebellum
4. hypothalamus
5. basal nuclei

105. Damage to which area of the brain can result in Huntington's chorea or Parkinson's disease?

1. basal nuclei
2. hypothalamus
3. thalamus
4. cerebellum
5. corpus callosum

106. Which area of the brain provides feedback control of voluntary movement by comparing accomplished movement to planned movement?

1. basal nuclei
2. hypothalamus

3. thalamus
4. corpus callosum
5. cerebellum

107. Which area of the brain is necessary for language comprehension?

1. basal nuclei
2. Wernicke's area
3. primary auditory cortex
4. primary somatosensory cortex
5. Broca's area

108. Which area of the brain is necessary for language expression?

1. primary auditory cortex
2. primary somatosensory cortex
3. Broca's area
4. Wernicke's area
5. basal nuclei

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109. Voluntary control of fine discrete movement happens in which lobe of the cerebral cortex?

1. parietal lobe
2. frontal lobe
3. temporal lobe
4. occipital lobe
5. corpus callosum

110. Where in the cerebral cortex does visual perception occur?

1. parietal lobe
2. frontal lobe
3. temporal lobe
4. occipital lobe
5. corpus callosum

111. Where in the cerebral cortex does auditory perception occur?

1. parietal lobe
2. frontal lobe
3. temporal lobe
4. occipital lobe
5. corpus callosum

112. Where in the cerebral cortex do thoughts occur?

1. parietal lobe
2. frontal lobe
3. temporal lobe
4. occipital lobe
5. corpus callosum

113. Where in the cerebral cortex do personality traits reside?

1. parietal lobe
2. frontal lobe
3. temporal lobe
4. occipital lobe
5. corpus callosum

114. Where in the cerebral cortex does the awareness of limb positions and muscle tension occur?

1. parietal lobe

2. frontal lobe
3. temporal lobe
4. occipital lobe
5. corpus callosum

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115. The three meninges from neural tissue to bone are

1. pia mater, dura mater, and arachnoid mater.
2. arachnoid mater, pia mater, and dura mater.
3. pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater.
4. dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.
5. dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid mater.

116. The space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater that contains cerebrospinal fluid is called the

1. subarachnoid space.
2. interventricular foramen.
3. ventricle.
4. choroid plexus.
5. central canal.

117. What area of the brain connects the left and right sides of the brain?

1. projection fibers
2. blood-brain barrier
3. corpus callosum
4. association fibers
5. astrocytes

118. The body surface is mapped into     , which are regions that receive sensory information from particular spinal nerves.

1. dermatomes
2. cortexes
3. reflex arcs
4. motor programs
5. homunculi

119. The region of the brainstem important in the sleep-wake cycle, the arousal of the cerebral cortex, and in consciousness is known as the

1. midbrain.
2. medulla oblongata.
3. corpus callosum.
4. pons.
5. reticular formation.

120. What endocrine gland is attached to the hypothalamus and involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms?

1. basal nuclei
2. fornix
3. parahippocampal gyri
4. pineal gland
5. cingulate nuclei

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121. Which of the following represents the five components of a reflex arc in the correct sequence?

1. sensory receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector organ
2. effector organ, sensory receptor, efferent neuron, afferent neuron, effector organ
3. integration center, sensory receptor, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, effector organ
4. sensory receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector organ

5. sensory receptor, integration center, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, effector organ

122. The ability of the nervous system to adapt anatomically and functionally to changes in its activity is called

1. consolidation.
2. parallel processing.
3. habituation.
4. plasticity.
5. sensitization.

123. The maintenance of an uninterrupted delivery of oxygen and glucose to the brain is essential to its function.

What is it about the brain and nervous tissue in general that makes them so sensitive to changes in blood flow?

124. Describe the structure of the spinal cord and how the spinal cord is organized.
125. The development of the cerebral cortex is what appears to set humans apart from other species. Identify the structures and general functions of the cortex.

126. The cortex is not the only functional portion of the cerebrum; subcortical structures are important to a number of systems. Describe the subcortical structures of the cerebrum and their various functions.
127. Characterize the four types of reflexes, including the essential components of a reflex arc, and describe the details of the withdrawal reflex.
128. Researchers have developed a "bionic arm." This technology is possible primarily because of two facts of amputation. First, the motor cortex still sends out control signals even if certain voluntary muscles are no longer there to innervate. Second, when doctors amputate a limb, they do not remove all the nerves that

once carried signals to the muscles in that limb. If those nerve endings can be redirected to a working muscle group, and the person thinks "grab the handle and turn," then the brain will send out corresponding signals

to the nerves and communicate with the new limb. Based on your knowledge of voluntary motor tasks, explain how this technology is possible.

129. Liz is a seventy-year-old woman who is both a wife and a mother. She is moderately obese (BMI 32), and has smoked a half a pack to a pack of cigarettes a day since she was 16 years old. Liz awakes one morning with weakness on her right side. She is confused, sees double, and has slurred speech. She stumbles and has

an awkward gait trying to get to the restroom, where she collapses. Her husband calls 911 and Liz is transported to the hospital.

Upon physical examination, Liz is found to have partial paralysis (hemiparesis) on her right side and diminished sensitivity to a pin prick on her arm and right side of her face. She has difficulty answering questions, speaking only a few words which are slurred and grammatically incorrect. Her ability to respond