Florida International University

BIO PCB 4023

Chapter 2

Figure 2.1

1. Which of the following nucleotide sequences accurately reflects the mRNA that would be produced from the double-stranded DNA shown in Figure 2.1?
   1. 3'GTTCTGTCACTCTGT5'
   2. 5'UGUCUCACUGUCUUG3'
   3. 3'ACAGAGUGACAGAAC5'
   4. 3'TGTCTCACTGTCTTG5'
   5. 5'ACAGAGTGACAGAAC3'
2. Based upon a sequence of 15 nucleotides in a strand of DNA, what is the maximum amount of amino acids produced?

A) 3 B) 2 C) 50 D) 5 E) 7

3. What interaction between complementary bases holds the two strands of a DNA molecule together?
   1. disulfide bridges
   2. hydrogen bonds
   3. ionic bonds
   4. covalent bonds
   5. van der Waals forces

4. What interaction between the phosphate and the carbohydrate of a nucleotide holds the backbone of a DNA strand together?
   1. hydrogen bonds
   2. covalent bonds
   3. ionic bonds
   4. disulfide bridges
   5. van der Waals forces
5. Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide?
   1. deoxyribose
   2. fructose
   3. galactose
   4. glucose
   5. lactose  Figure 2.2
6. What type of molecule is shown in Figure 2.2?
   1. monosaccharide
   2. disaccharide
   3. phospholipid
   4. fatty acid
   5. amino acid
7. The presence of          chemical groups makes carbohydrates   .
   1. hydroxyl : nonpolar
   2. carboxyl : polar and acidic
   3. hydroxyl : polar
   4. amino : polar
   5. amino : acidic
8. Which of the following molecules is a disaccharide?
   1. lactose B) glycogen C) glucose D) fructose E) galactose

2

9. Which of the following correctly describes glycogen?
   1. It contains the genetic information found in cells.
   2. It serves as a structural component of human cells.
   3. It helps to protect vital organs from damage.
   4. It is an important storage polysaccharide found in animal tissues.
   5. It forms the regulatory molecules known as enzymes.
10. Which of the following is an example of a pentose sugar?
    1. fructose
    2. deoxyribose
    3. sucrose
    4. lactose
    5. glucose
11.               is a polysaccharide found in animal cells, whereas is a polysaccharide found in plants that can be degraded by humans.
    1. Galactose : starch
    2. Lactose : starch
    3. Glycogen : starch
    4. Galactose : cellulose
    5. Glycogen : cellulose
12. Which of the following molecules will dissolve readily in water?
    1. C6H14 B) cholesterol C) triglyceride D) NaCl E) fatty acid
13. Which of the following statements concerning hydrogen bonds is FALSE?
    1. They are responsible for many of the unique properties of water.
    2. They can form between neighboring molecules.
    3. They are important forces for tertiary structure of proteins.
    4. They are strong attractive forces between hydrogen atoms and negatively charged atoms.
    5. They can occur within a single molecule.
14.               are molecules that contain primarily carbons and hydrogens linked together by nonpolar covalent bonds.
    1. Lipids
    2. Nucleotides
    3. Polysaccharides
    4. Carbohydrates
    5. Proteins  3
15.               are molecules composed of a glycerol and three fatty acids.
    1. Eicosanoids
    2. Triglycerides
    3. Saturated fatty acids
    4. Phospholipids
    5. Steroids
16. A fatty acid that contains three double bonds in its carbon chain is said to be
    1. hypersaturated.
    2. monounsaturated.
    3. polysaturated.
    4. polyunsaturated.
    5. saturated.

17.               are molecules that form the bilayer of cell membranes and micelles.
    1. Steroids
    2. Triglycerides
    3. Phospholipids
    4. Eicosanoids
    5. Saturated fatty acids
18. The amphipathic property of phospholipids can be described as a
    1. nonpolar region that dissolves in water and a polar region that face one another.
    2. single polar region that is miscible in aqueous solution.
    3. single nonpolar region that is not miscible in aqueous solution.
    4. nonpolar region facing the outside and a polar region facing the inside of a cell.
    5. polar region that dissolves in water and a nonpolar region that repels water.
19.               are modified fatty acids that function in intercellular communication and include prostaglandins and thromboxanes.
    1. Eicosanoids
    2. Phospholipids
    3. Triglycerides
    4. Steroids
    5. Saturated fatty acids
20.               act(s) as the precursor to steroid molecules, many of which function as hormones.
    1. Eicosanoids
    2. Unsaturated fatty acids
    3. Saturated fatty acids
    4. Cholesterol
    5. Phospholipids

4

Figure 2.3

21. Based on Figure 2.3, what type of molecule is this?
    1. fatty acid
    2. nucleotide
    3. steroid
    4. amino acid
    5. phospholipid
22.               are molecules whose general structure includes a central carbon with a carboxyl group, an amine group, a hydrogen molecule, and a residual (R) group.
    1. Amino acids
    2. Carbohydrates
    3. Lipids
    4. Proteins
    5. Nucleotides
23. Alpha-helixes and ! -pleated sheets are examples of     structures of a protein.
    1. primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) quinary
24. Formation of peptide bonds occurs by condensation reactions between the    group of one amino acid and the            group of another.
    1. carboxyl : amino acid amino B) fatty acid : glycerol

C) amino acid : amino acid D) glucose : glucose

25. The most common elements found in biomolecules are carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and
    1. chlorine.

1. 2. calcium.
   3. phosphorous.
   4. oxygen.
   5. potassium.

5

26. Each amino acid differs from others only by the
    1. size of its amino group.
    2. number of central carbon atoms.
    3. number of peptide bonds in the molecule.
    4. characteristic of its R group.
    5. number of its carboxyl groups.
27. Hydrogen bonding between the amino hydrogen of one amino acid and the carboxyl oxygen of another is responsible for which of the following?
    1. holding the two strands of DNA together by the law of complementary base pairing
    2. twisting the DNA into a helical structure
    3. primary protein structure
    4. secondary protein structure
    5. tertiary protein structure
28. An acid is a molecule that acts as a(n)
    1. proton donor.
    2. hydrogen acceptor.
    3. proton acceptor.
    4. electron donor.
    5. hydroxide donor.
29. Ketoacids (a carboxylic acid group attached to a ketone) are often produced during fasting and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. What potential outcome of this would be of greatest concern?
    1. acetone breath
    2. weight loss
    3. disoriented thinking
    4. ketoacidosis
    5. burning ketone bodies
30. The              structure of a protein is formed between residual (R) groups of the amino acid backbone by a number of different chemical interactions, dependent upon the nature of the residual groups interacting.
    1. primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) quinary
31. Which of the following is an example of a fibrous protein?
    1. insulin
    2. growth hormone
    3. hemoglobin
    4. collagen
    5. Na+/K+ pumps

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32.               are molecules that are composed of one or more phosphate groups, a 5-carbon sugar, and a nitrogenous base.
    1. Phospholipids
    2. Nucleotides
    3. Lipids
    4. Amino acids
    5. Glycoproteins

33. Why are nucleotides (and their polymers) called nucleic acids when they contain nitrogenous bases?
    1. Acids ending in "-ic" are the ionized versions of those molecules ending in "-ate."
    2. Nitrogenous base is really a misnomer.
    3. There are more acids on the molecule than bases.
    4. Phosphoric acid groups (becoming phosphates) are much stronger than nitrogen acts as a base.
    5. Acids always win out over a base.
34. When the body needs to make the eicosanoid thromboxane for wound repair, what component of the plasma membrane does it use for their synthesis?
    1. glycolipid
    2. fatty acid from phospholipid
    3. ATP
    4. transmembrane glycoprotein
    5. cholesterol
35. Which of the following is/are found in DNA but not RNA?
    1. uracil
    2. ribose
    3. adenine
    4. both adenine and thymine
    5. both thymine and deoxyribose
36. All of the following are basic components of proteins EXCEPT
    1. potassium. B) carbon. C) oxygen. D) nitrogen. E) hydrogen.
37. Which of the following molecule types is NOT a polymer?
    1. protein B) DNA C) fatty acid D) RNA E) glycogen
38. Which of the following is NOT a base in RNA?
    1. adenine B) cytosine C) thymine D) uracil E) guanine

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39. Which of the following descriptions of a polymer is FALSE?
    1. Starch is a polymer of glucose.
    2. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.
    3. Glycogen is a polymer of glucose.
    4. A protein is a polymer of amino acids.
    5. ATP is a polymer of phosphates.
40. Which of the following is NOT a function of nucleotides?
    1. providing substrates for the citric acid cycle
    2. storing the genetic code
    3. providing electrons to the electron transport chain
    4. providing most of the energy for cellular processes
    5. expressing the genetic code
41. In eukaryotes, which of the following properties is TRUE for both DNA and RNA?
    1. involved in translation
    2. double-stranded
    3. follow the law of complementary base pairing
    4. contain the bases uracil and thymine
    5. propagation through semi-conservative replication
42.               is composed of a nucleotide, where the phosphate is bound to two spots on the ribose sugar.
    1. DNA B) ADP C) mRNA D) cAMP E) tRNA

43. The presence of          in the plasma membrane can inhibit crystallization.
    1. peripheral membrane proteins
    2. phospholipids
    3. integral membrane proteins
    4. glycoproteins
    5. cholesterol
44. Which of the following is NOT found in plasma membranes?
    1. carbohydrates
    2. phospholipids
    3. proteins
    4. cholesterol
    5. chromatin

45. Which of the following components of the plasma membrane forms ion channels?
    1. cholesterol
    2. transmembrane glycolipids
    3. transmembrane proteins
    4. peripheral membrane proteins
    5. phospholipids
46. Which of the following is NOT an integral membrane protein?
    1. connexons
    2. occludins
    3. carrier proteins for mediated transport
    4. actin
    5. channels for ion diffusion across membranes
47. Which of the following is an amphipathic molecule?
    1. integral membrane protein
    2. triglyceride
    3. glycogen
    4. peripheral membrane protein
    5. glucose
48. Which of the following is NOT an amphipathic molecule?
    1. phospholipid
    2. connexon
    3. integral membrane protein
    4. glycolipid
    5. glucose
49. What is the layer of carbohydrates on the external surface of a cell called?
    1. inclusion
    2. glycogen
    3. glycocalyx
    4. desmosome
    5. glycolysis
50. The              is the site of ribosomal RNA production.
    1. cytosol
    2. nucleolus
    3. lysosome
    4. mitochondria
    5. nucleus

51. Where is the genetic code stored?
    1. heart B) nucleus C) brain D) vaults E) cytoplasm
52. Where inside a cell is glycogen stored?
    1. Golgi apparatus
    2. mitochondria
    3. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    4. lysosomes
    5. cytosol
53. Lipophobic molecules that are to be released by cells are stored in membrane-bound structures called
    1. inclusions.
    2. the Golgi apparatus.
    3. the endoplasmic reticulum.
    4. secretory vesicles.
    5. excretory vesicles.
54. Continuous with the outer portion of the nuclear pore, what membrane-bound structure functions in the synthesis of secretory proteins, integral membrane proteins, or proteins bound for other organelles?
    1. rough endoplasmic reticulum
    2. mitochondria
    3. lysosome
    4. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    5. nucleolus
55. The              is the site where lipids, triglycerides, and steroids are synthesized, as well as where calcium is stored within the cell.
    1. nucleolus
    2. rough endoplasmic reticulum
    3. lysosome
    4. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    5. mitochondria
56. What is the site where steroids are stored in the cell?
    1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    2. Golgi apparatus
    3. secretory vesicles
    4. lysosome
    5. Steroids are lipid and will slide right through membranes; they cannot be stored in the cell.

57. What organelle packages and directs proteins to their proper destination?
    1. rough endoplasmic reticulum
    2. ribosomes
    3. Golgi apparatus
    4. lysosomes
    5. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
58. Which of the following is NOT a property of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
    1. stores calcium
    2. steroid hormone synthesis
    3. In liver cells, it contains detoxifying enzymes.
    4. forms transport vesicles to move proteins to the Golgi apparatus
    5. stores steroid hormones

59. Hydrolytic reactions are when
    1. the bond between two molecules is broken, resulting in the removal of a water molecule.
    2. two molecules are joined together by adding a water molecule.
    3. water is removed from the cell.
    4. the bond between two molecules is broken through the splitting of a water molecule, thereby creating two new bonds with the H and OH of that water in its place.
    5. two molecules are joined together, resulting in the removal of a water molecule.
60. Which of the following descriptions of the function of the organelle is FALSE?
    1. Calcium is stored in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
    2. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria.
    3. Packaging of secretory products into vesicles occurs in the Golgi apparatus.
    4. Breakdown of phagocytosed bacteria occurs in the peroxisomes.
    5. Peptide hormone synthesis occurs in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
61. Detoxifying enzymes may be localized in what organelle?
    1. rough endoplasmic reticulum
    2. lysosomes
    3. mitochondria
    4. peroxisomes
    5. Golgi apparatus
62. In Tay-Sachs Disease, which organelle contains the impaired enzymes?
    1. centriole
    2. rough endoplasmic reticulum
    3. lysosome
    4. Golgi apparatus
    5. mitochondria

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63. What organelle synthesizes most of the ATP used by cells?
    1. peroxisomes
    2. Golgi apparatus
    3. lysosomes
    4. ribosomes
    5. mitochondria
64.               are membrane-bound organelles containing enzymes that degrade cellular and extracellular debris.
    1. Vaults
    2. Peroxisomes
    3. Mitochondria
    4. Lysosomes
    5. Ribosomes
65.               are membrane-bound organelles that contain enzymes like catalase, which catalyzes the breakdown of H2O2 to H2O and O2.
    1. Vaults
    2. Lysosomes
    3. Ribosomes
    4. Mitochondria
    5. Peroxisomes
66. Which of the following characteristics concerning ribosomes is FALSE?
    1. contain protein

66. 2. contain ribosomal RNA
    3. can be located in the Golgi apparatus
    4. can remain free in the cytosol
    5. are the site of protein synthesis
67. Which of the following organelles contains its own DNA?
    1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    2. rough endoplasmic reticulum
    3. lysosomes
    4. mitochondria
    5. Golgi apparatus
68. Which of the following is NOT a function of the cytoskeleton?
    1. cellular catabolism
    2. suspension of organelles
    3. cellular movement
    4. contraction
    5. mechanical support

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69. Which cytoskeletal proteins provide the structural support for microvilli?
    1. intermediate filaments
    2. microtubules
    3. tight junctions
    4. centrioles
    5. microfilaments
70. Keratin is an example of which type of cytoskeletal protein?
    1. microtubules
    2. intermediate filaments
    3. tight junctions
    4. microfilaments
    5. centrioles
71. Which of the following filaments is found in cilia and flagella?
    1. microfilaments only
    2. intermediate filaments only
    3. microtubules only
    4. microfilaments and microtubules
    5. microfilaments and intermediate filaments
72. Which microtubular proteins are responsible for the distribution of chromosomes during cell division?
    1. myosin
    2. spindle fibers
    3. keratin
    4. tubulin
    5. actin
73. The protein            is responsible for generating force as microtubular proteins in cilia slide past one another.
    1. keratin B) myosin C) dynein D) tubulin E) actin
74.               are proteins that fuse adjacent cells together to form a nearly impermeable barrier.
    1. Connexins B) Tubulins C) Cadherins D) Dyneins E) Occludins
75.               are proteins attached to intermediate filaments in regions where cells are exposed to mechanical

stresses.

75. 1. Connexins B) Tubulins C) Cadherins D) Dyneins E) Occludins
76.               are proteins that form channels between cells, allowing ions and small molecules to diffuse directly from one cell to the other.
    1. Occludins B) Connexins C) Cadherins D) Tubulins E) Dyneins

77. In some cases, signals originating within one cell can diffuse directly to a neighboring cell through
    1. occludins.
    2. cadherins.
    3. gap junctions.
    4. tight junctions.
    5. desmosomes.

78. In the digestive tract, absorption is controlled by mechanisms on the cell's apical membrane surface. What type of physical barriers would be in place to keep these mechanisms from being circumnavigated?
    1. desmosomes
    2. tight junctions
    3. carrier proteins
    4. gap junctions
    5. microvilli
79. Intercellular communication can occur through the binding of a chemical released from one cell to a specific

              on another cell.

79. 1. organelle
    2. nucleus
    3. clathrin-coated vesicle
    4. phagosome
    5. receptor
80. Which of the following does NOT describe a part of post-transcriptional processing?
    1. removal of the introns from the strand
    2. formation of bonds between a phosphate group and a sugar
    3. addition of a poly A tail at the 3' end
    4. splicing of nucleic acid fragments
    5. capping of the 5' end
81. The process whereby a complementary mRNA is produced from a DNA template is called
    1. transcytosis.
    2. transoperon.
    3. translation.
    4. transcription.
    5. post-translational modification.
82. During translation,          is synthesized in the         .
    1. RNA : cytoplasm
    2. protein : nucleus
    3. RNA : nucleus
    4. protein : cytoplasm
    5. DNA : nucleus

83. Based upon the triplet nature of a codon and the presence of four possible bases, how many possible amino acids might be coded for by mRNA?

A) 64 B) 128 C) 8 D) 16 E) 32

84. The initiator codon is composed of the sequence
    1. UUG. B) CCC. C) CCG. D) AAC. E) AUG.
85. The initiator codon, that originates translation, codes for the amino acid
    1. proline.
    2. methionine.
    3. arginine.
    4. tyrosine.
    5. leucine.
86. What strand of mRNA would be transcribed from the following strand of DNA: 5'AATG?
    1. 5'UUGT B) 3'UUAC C) 5'TTUC D) 3'TTAC E) 5'GGUA
87. Which of the following statements about the genetic code is TRUE?
    1. A single gene contains only those nucleotides that code for a single protein.
    2. The promoter sequence is found on the antisense strand of DNA.
    3. A single codon may code for more than one amino acid.
    4. The tRNA anticodon is complementary to the mRNA codon, and therefore is identical to the gene's DNA triplet.
    5. Termination codons do not code for amino acids.
88. The strand of DNA that gets transcribed to mRNA is called the
    1. template strand.
    2. promoter sequence.
    3. exon strand.
    4. intron strand.
    5. ribophorin.
89. According to the law of complementary base pairing, which of the following would be expected in any strand of DNA?
    1. A = G and C = T
    2. A = C and T = G
    3. A + G = C + T
    4. G + C = T + A
    5. A = G  
90. During transcription,
    1. protein is synthesized from RNA in the nucleus.
    2. RNA is synthesized from DNA in the nucleus.
    3. RNA is synthesized from DNA in the cytoplasm.
    4. protein is synthesized from RNA in the cytoplasm.
    5. DNA is synthesized from DNA in the nucleus.
91. What is the portion of DNA that codes for a particular protein?
    1. codon
    2. triplet
    3. gene
    4. promoter sequence
    5. nucleotide
92. If guanine makes up 29% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA, what percentage of the sample would be adenine?

A) 11 B) 42 C) 35 D) 21 E) 29

93. What causes DNA to uncoil during transcription?
    1. binding of DNA polymerase to the leader sequence
    2. binding of helicase to the DNA
    3. binding of ubiquitin to the DNA
    4. binding of tRNA to the initiator codon
    5. binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter sequence
94. An anticodon is
    1. the strand of DNA used to create mRNA.
    2. the complement to the complement of the gene.
    3. the stop signal that does not code for an amino acid.
    4. a three-nucleotide series on tRNA that is complementary to the mRNA to which it binds.
    5. the code for a particular amino acid.
95. Which of the following statements about the genetic code is FALSE?
    1. There are 3 termination codons that do not code for amino acids.
    2. Each amino acid is coded for by only one codon.
    3. Each codon is specific for only one amino acid.
    4. There is one initiator codon and it codes for an amino acid.
    5. mRNA is read 3 bases at a time and these units are called codons.

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96. Where does RNA polymerase bind to initiate transcription?
    1. leader sequence
    2. P subunit of the ribosome
    3. hormone response element
    4. promoter sequence
    5. initiation factor
97. The codon is
    1. the triplet of nucleotides found in a gene's sequence.
    2. the portion of mRNA that is retained after processing.
    3. mRNA language coding for a particular amino acid.
    4. DNA language coding for a particular amino acid.
    5. the genetic code.
98. The promoter sequence of the gene is recognized by    , which initiates transcription.
    1. gyrase
    2. DNA polymerase
    3. helicase
    4. RNA polymerase
    5. ligase
99. What is the base sequence of the tRNA molecule that recognizes the complementary mRNA molecule?
    1. anticodon
    2. initiator codon
    3. nonsense
    4. sense
    5. codon
100. What is the correct order for the following list of steps for initiating translation?

1. Binding of initiator tRNA to mRNA
2. Binding of large ribosomal subunit to mRNA
3. Binding of small ribosomal subunit to mRNA
4. Binding of a 2nd tRNA with its amino acid to the A site
5. Formation of covalent bond between methionine and second amino acid

A) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 D) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 E) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

101. What happens at the P site of a ribosome?

1. It causes the ribosome to attach to the endoplasmic reticulum.
2. It holds the tRNA with the next amino acid to be added to the polypeptide chain.
3. It contains the enzyme that catalyzes formation of a peptide bond.
4. It has the binding site for mRNA.
5. It holds the tRNA with the most recent amino acid that has been added to the polypeptide chain.

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102. Post-transcriptional processing adds a(n)   to the 5' end of the mRNA molecule.

A) intron B) cap C) poly A tail D) poly C tail E) exon

103. Post-transcriptional processing adds a(n)   to the 3' end of the mRNA molecule.

A) exon B) poly C tail C) poly A tail D) intron E) cap

104. Which of the following is NOT a function of the initiation factors associated with translation of protein from mRNA?

1. They trigger binding of the small ribosomal subunit to AUG.
2. They form a complex with charged tRNA.
3. They align the first tRNA with the A site on a ribosome.
4. They bind to the cap group at the 5' end.
5. They form a complex with small ribosomal subunits.

105. The leader sequence of any protein that has just been translated functions to

1. initiate degradation of an incomplete protein.
2. stimulate translation of a protein.
3. end translation of a protein.
4. keep the protein in the cytosol.
5. determine the destination of the protein.

106. Which of the following processes is NOT a post-translational modification that occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum or Golgi apparatus to make proteins functional?

1. the cleavage of excess amino acids
2. the removal of the leader sequence
3. the addition of lipids
4. the addition of carbohydrates
5. the addition of more amino acids

107. What is the outcome of having only the head of the sperm entering the oocyte?

1. Paternal lineage is more easily traced.
2. Genealogy lines become less conclusive.
3. Flagella is free to move the fertilized egg to the uterus.
4. Genetic abnormalities are reduced by one-half.
5. Mitochondrial DNA is only of maternal inheritance.

108. Which of the following is NOT a possible destination for proteins that are completely synthesized on ribosomes free in the cytosol?

1. secreted from the cell
2. nucleus
3. peroxisome
4. mitochondrion
5. remains in cytosol

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109. When proteins are synthesized by ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum, where does the

translation begin?

1. nucleus
2. Golgi apparatus
3. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
4. cytosol
5. rough endoplasmic reticulum

110. Which of the following are NOT embedded in the lipid bilayer at all?

1. cadherins
2. peripheral proteins
3. integral proteins
4. connexons
5. transmembrane proteins

111. Where is the leader sequence of preproinsulin removed?

1. cis face of the Golgi apparatus
2. secretory vesicles of the Golgi apparatus
3. at the proteasome
4. surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum
5. lumen of rough endoplasmic reticulum

112. Ubiquitin tags proteins for what purpose?

1. for synthesis to continue on the rough endoplasmic reticulum
2. to mark for degradation by proteasomes
3. to protect from degradation by proteasomes
4. for the protein to enter the nucleus and alter transcription
5. for the protein to be secreted by exocytosis

113. What enzyme catalyzes the reaction whereby nucleotides are added to the polynucleotide chain during replication?

1. helicase
2. chromatin
3. DNA polymerase
4. histone
5. RNA polymerase

114. Aspirin and ibuprofen both block the enzyme cyclooxygenase from changing arachidonic acid, found in the phospholipid bilayer, into what?

1. leukotrienes
2. sterols
3. surfactant
4. prostaglandins
5. bile salts  19

115. During replication, which strand of the new DNA is synthesized from the 5' to 3' strand of original DNA?

1. leading strand
2. trailing strand
3. ending strand
4. lagging strand
5. beginning strand

116. Okazaki fragments are

1. small sections of nonsense code found between genes.
2. protein fragments released from a proteasome.
3. sections of newly formed DNA, built on the leading (3' to 5') template strand.

4. small sections of newly formed DNA, built on the lagging (5' to 3') template strand.
5. small sections of DNA that do not code for protein found within a gene.

117. During what phase of the cell cycle is the cell carrying out its normal activity and NOT involved directly in cell division?

A) G0 B) G1 C) G2 D) S E) mitosis

118. During what phase of the cell cycle does cellular replication of DNA occur?

A) G0 B) G1 C) G2 D) S E) mitosis

119. During what phase of the cell cycle does rapid protein synthesis occur as the cell grows to double its size?

A) G0 B) G1 C) G2 D) S E) mitosis

120. Which of the following is NOT a phase of mitosis?

A) meiosis B) telophase C) prophase D) metaphase E) anaphase

121. During what phase of cell division do chromosomes align along the midline?

A) anaphase B) prophase C) interphase D) telophase E) metaphase

122. During what phase of cell division do two new nuclear envelopes begin to redevelop?

A) interphase B) telophase C) prophase D) anaphase E) metaphase

123. What links sister chromatids together?

1. actins
2. dyneins
3. centromeres
4. chromatins
5. histones  

124. What is the correct level of structure for proteins containing more than one polypeptide chain?

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) quinary

125. What is the level of structure that corresponds to the sequence and number of amino acids in the polypeptide chain?

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) quinary

126. What is the level of structure that corresponds to the chemical interactions between R groups within the same polypeptide chain?

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) quinary

127. What level of structure is caused when the hydrogen bonds between the amino hydrogen of one amino acid and the carboxyl oxygen of another amino acid is formed?

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) quinary

128. The junctions created by intermediate filaments which penetrate the membranes between two cells at the site of protein plaques, thereby forming strong linkage between the two cells, are also known as

1. tight junctions.
2. hemidesmosomes.
3. gap junctions.
4. desmosomes.
5. basal lamina.

129. What junctions are found in epithelial tissue where they prevent paracellular movement of molecules?

1. basal lamina
2. hemidesmosomes

3. gap junctions
4. desmosomes
5. tight junctions

130. What junctions allow the passage of small molecules and ions from the cytosol of one cell to that of a neighboring cell?

1. gap junctions
2. basal lamina
3. tight junctions
4. desmosomes
5. hemidesmosomes

21

131. Which of the following packages proteins into secretory vesicles?

1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
2. lysosomes
3. mitochondria
4. Golgi apparatus
5. peroxisomes

132. Which of the following packages proteins into transport vesicles?

1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
2. lysosomes
3. mitochondria
4. Golgi apparatus
5. peroxisomes

133. The enzyme catalase is located where?

1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
2. lysosomes
3. mitochondria
4. Golgi apparatus
5. peroxisomes

134. Endocytotic vesicles fuse with what organelle?

1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
2. lysosomes
3. mitochondria
4. Golgi apparatus
5. peroxisomes

135. The bulk of ATP production is performed where?

1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
2. lysosomes
3. mitochondria
4. Golgi apparatus
5. peroxisomes

136. Lipids synthesis is performed where?

1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
2. lysosomes
3. mitochondria
4. Golgi apparatus
5. peroxisomes

137. Which cellular protein is found in gap junctions?

A) connexons B) dynein C) occludins D) tubulin E) cadherins

138. Which cellular protein is found in tight junctions?

A) cadherins B) occludins C) connexons D) tubulin E) dynein

139. Which cellular protein is found in desmosomes?

A) occludins B) dynein C) connexons D) tubulin E) cadherins

Figure 2.4

140. Identify the organelle referred to as "A" in Figure 2.4 and select the function of that organelle.

1. nucleus?contains the cell's DNA
2. nucleolus?site within the nucleus for the synthesis of rRNA
3. mitochondria?production of cellular energy in the form of ATP
4. smooth endoplasmic reticulum?site of lipid synthesis and storage of calcium
5. rough endoplasmic reticulum?synthesis of proteins to be packaged into vesicles

141. Identify the organelle referred to as "B" in Figure 2.4 and select the function of that organelle.

1. rough endoplasmic reticulum?synthesis of proteins to be packaged into vesicles
2. nucleolus?site within the nucleus for the synthesis of rRNA
3. nucleus?contains the cell's DNA
4. smooth endoplasmic reticulum?site of lipid synthesis and storage of calcium
5. mitochondria?production of cellular energy in the form of ATP

23

142. Identify the organelle referred to as "C" in Figure 2.4 and select the function of that organelle.

1. mitochondria?production of cellular energy in the form of ATP
2. nucleolus?site within the nucleus for the synthesis of rRNA
3. rough endoplasmic reticulum?synthesis of proteins to be packaged into vesicles
4. smooth endoplasmic reticulum?site of lipid synthesis and storage of calcium
5. nucleus?contains the cell's DNA

143. Identify the organelle referred to as "D" in Figure 2.4 and select the function of that organelle.

1. mitochondria?production of cellular energy in the form of ATP
2. nucleolus?site within the nucleus for the synthesis of rRNA
3. rough endoplasmic reticulum?synthesis of proteins to be packaged into vesicles
4. smooth endoplasmic reticulum?site of lipid synthesis and storage of calcium
5. nucleus?contains the cell's DNA

144. Identify the organelle referred to as "E" in Figure 2.4 and select the function of that organelle.

1. mitochondria?production of cellular energy in the form of ATP
2. smooth endoplasmic reticulum?site of lipid synthesis and storage of calcium
3. nucleolus?site within the nucleus for the synthesis of rRNA
4. rough endoplasmic reticulum?synthesis of proteins to be packaged into vesicles
5. nucleus?contains the cell's DNA

145. Identify the organelle referred to as "F" in Figure 2.4 and select the function of that organelle.

1. nucleus?contains the cell's DNA
2. Golgi apparatus?processes and packages peptides, directs them to their ultimate location
3. mitochondria?production of cellular energy in the form of ATP
4. nucleolus?site within the nucleus for the synthesis of rRNA
5. rough endoplasmic reticulum?synthesis of proteins to be packaged into vesicles

146. What is a glycerol with 3 fatty acids attached?

1. eicosanoid
2. glycerolipid

3. triglyceride
4. phospholipid
5. saturated fat

147. What is the extensively branched polymer of hexose found in animals?

A) rRNA B) glycogen C) lactose D) starch E) glucose

Figure 2.5

148. In Figure 2.5, what is this structure and what type of molecule makes up its composition?

1. desmosome, composed of cadherins
2. sperm, composed of haploid DNA and microtubules
3. cilia, composed of microtubules and dynein
4. micelle, composed of phospholipids.
5. peroxisome, composed of peroxidase enzymes and fatty acids

149. What two structural characteristics of proteins are formed by hydrogen bonds between the carboxyl O and the amino H of amino acids within the same protein?

1. fibrous : globular
2. strength : resilience
3. double helix : folded sheets
4. "-helices : !-pleated sheets
5. flexibility : shear resistance

150. What spherical structures are involved in the transport of nonpolar molecules through the aqueous environment and are composed of a phospholipid monolayer?

1. lysosomes
2. micelles
3. vacuoles
4. peroxisomes
5. proteasomes

151. What are the three components of a nucleotide?

1. ribonucleic acid, base pairs, phosphate backbone
2. 5-carbon carbohydrate, phosphate, nitrogenous base
3. pentose, nitrogenous base, phosphorus
4. pentose sugar, 5-carbon carbohydrate, phosphate
5. deoxyribonucleic acid, base pairs, phosphate/sugar backbone

152. Of the five bases found in nucleic acids, which are purines and which are pyrimidines?

1. Pyrimidines = thymine and uracil : Purines = cytosine, adenine and guanosine
2. Pyrimidines = cytosine and uracil : Purines = adenine, thymine and guanosine
3. Pyrimidines = cytosine, adenine and guanosine: Purines = thymine, and uracil
4. Pyrimidines = cytosine, thymine and uracil : Purines = adenine and guanosine
5. Pyrimidines = adenine and guanosine: Purines = cytosine, thymine, and uracil

153. What type of integral membrane protein spans the membrane, thereby allowing part of it to face the cytosol and another part to face the extracellular fluid?

1. transmembrane protein
2. glycoprotein
3. steroid receptor
4. peripheral membrane protein
5. paramembrane protein

154. What structure separates the nucleus from the cytosol?

1. nuclear envelope
2. plasma membrane
3. nuclear pore
4. matrix
5. nucleolus

155. Through what structure in the nucleus can mRNA pass through to get into the cytosol?

1. nucleolus
2. nuclear envelope
3. plasma membrane
4. nuclear pore
5. matrix

156. What are masses of glycogen in the cytosol of some cells called?

1. Heinz bodies
2. granules
3. inclusions
4. stipplings
5. Lewy bodies

157. The membrane of the rough endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with what other membrane(s)?

1. Golgi apparatus
2. matrix
3. smooth endoplasmic reticulum and nuclear envelope
4. plasma membrane
5. nucleolus and nuclear pore

158. What is the innermost chamber of a mitochondrion called?

1. plasma membrane
2. nucleolus
3. nuclear envelope
4. nuclear pore
5. matrix

159. Components of the electron transport chain are found in what region of a mitochondrion?

1. outer membrane
2. cristae
3. intermembrane space
4. matrix
5. inner mitochondrial membrane

160. What organelle contains alcohol dehydrogenase, used in the liver to metabolize alcohol?

1. lysosomes
2. proteasomes
3. liposomes
4. desmosomes
5. peroxisomes

161. What two types of molecules make up ribosomes?

1. proteins and phospholipids
2. rRNA and tRNA
3. phospholipids and RNA
4. mRNA and tRNA
5. rRNA and proteins

162. Myosin is composed of what type of molecule?

1. microtubule
2. integral protein
3. globular protein
4. microfilament
5. intermediate filament

163. Certain epithelial cells have a decided polarity where the      membrane faces the lumen of a hollow tube, whereas the                                                         membrane faces the extracellular fluid.

1. positively charged : negatively charged
2. apical : basement
3. luminal : extracellular
4. upper : lower
5. apical : basolateral

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164. The CAP region of mRNA is necessary for      of translation.

1. transcription
2. termination
3. initiation
4. propagation
5. accuracy

165. What are the tRNA binding sites on the ribosome called?

1. translation sites
2. proteogenic sites
3. A and P sites
4. nucleotide complement sites
5. T and R sites

166. What modifications made to mRNA function to prevent its degradation in the cytoplasm by exonucleases?

1. protein coat
2. exons
3. promoter regions
4. CAP and poly A tail
5. introns

167. Proteins tagged with the polypeptide    are targeted for degradation by a protein complex called a proteasome.

A) amyloid B) apoptosin C) cachectin D) ubiquitin E) degratin

168. Within the nucleus, chromosomes are coiled around which proteins?

1. proteasomes
2. chromatids
3. introns
4. histones
5. histamines

169. What is the proper order of the five phases of mitosis?

1. interphase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase
2. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, protelophase, telophase
3. prophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
4. prophase, prometaphase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
5. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

170. Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of a glucose and a lactose molecule.

ESSAY TYPE QUESTIONS

171. Carbohydrates and lipids are important biomolecules that store energy for the body to use later. Describe the structures and properties of carbohydrates and lipids, including the different forms of these biomolecules

that are present within the body.

172. Define and describe the structure of proteins, including the forces that determine the three-dimensional structure of these molecules.

173. Describe the structure and function of nucleotides and nucleic acids.

174. The membrane of a cell is an important structure that isolates the cell's cytosol from the external environment. The components of membranes are important determinants of their function. What are the components of a membrane and how do those components function?

175. List the membranous organelles that are present within the cell and describe their function.

176. All of the organelles present within a cell are not bound by membranes. Describe the non-membrane-bound organelles that are found in cells.

177. Describe the three types of proteins that comprise the cytoskeleton.

178. In order for tissues to maintain their structure and function, there must be some way for cells to adhere to their neighbors. Describe the adhesion proteins that function in coupling one cell to the next.

179. Describe the process of gene transcription, including how that process is regulated.

180. In general, describe the process whereby mRNA that has exited the nucleus is used to synthesize a functional protein.