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Homework answers / question archive / South University - PATHOPHYSI 5003 1)Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain? a

South University - PATHOPHYSI 5003 1)Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain? a

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South University - PATHOPHYSI 5003

1)Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain?

a.         Cerebellum

b.         Limbic system

 

c.         Prefrontal lobe

d.         Occipital lobe

 

2.         Parkinson disease is associated with defects in which area of the brain?

a.         Thalamus

b.         Medulla oblongata

c.         Cerebellum

 

d.         Substantia nigra

 

3.         Maintenance of a constant internal environment and the implementation of behavioral patterns are main functions of which area of the brain?

a.         Thalamus

b.         Epithalamus

c.         Subthalamus

 

d.         Hypothalamus

 

4.         What part of the brain mediates the physical expression of emotions?

 

a.         Hypothalamus

b.         Basal ganglia

c.         Medulla oblongata

d.         Subthalamus

 

5.         Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?

a.         Pons

b.         Midbrain

c.         Cerebellum

 

d.         Medulla oblongata

 

6.         A healthcare professional is assessing a patient who suffered a head trauma. The patient is not able to sense touch of a sharp pin and cannot distinguish a hot object from a cold one. What part of the patient’s brain does the professional suspect is damaged?

 

a.         Midbrain

 

b.         Pons

c.         Medulla oblongata

d.         Lateral colliculi

 

7.         A healthcare professional is assessing a patient for dysfunction of cranial nerve VII. What assessment finding would confirm the professional’s suspicion?

a.         Patient is unable to open mouth against resistance.

b.         Patient does not display intact gag reflex.

 

c.         Patient is able to smile only on one side of the face.

d.         Patient’s tongue deviates to the right when sticking out.

 

8.         Which area of the brain assumes the responsibility for involuntary muscle control and for maintaining balance and posture?

a.         Cerebrum

 

b.         Cerebellum

c.         Diencephalon

d.         Brainstem

 

9.         A patient has a spinal cord injury that included damage to the upper motor neurons. What assessment finding would the healthcare provider associate with this injury?

a.         Permanent paralysis below the level of the injury

 

b.         Initial paralysis, but gradual partial recovery later

c.         Hemiplegia on the contralateral side of the body

d.         Notable increase in the amount of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)

 

10.       What is the membrane that separates the brain’s cerebellum from its cerebrum?

 

a.         Tentorium cerebelli

b.         Falx cerebri

c.         Arachnoid membrane

d.         Falx cerebelli

 

11. Pricking one’s finger with a needle would cause minimal pain, whereas experiencing abdominal surgery would produce more pain. This distinction is an example of which pain theory?

a.         Gate control theory

 

b.         Intensity theory

 

c.         Specificity theory

d.         Pattern theory

 

12. Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain?

 

e.         Gate control theory (GCT)

f.          Pattern theory

g.         Specificity theory

h.         Neuromatrix theory

 

13.       Where is the gate in the gate control theory (GCT) of pain located?

 

a.         Substantia gelatinosa

b.         Marginal layer

c.         Nucleus proprius

d.         Dorsolateral tract of Lissauer

 

14. Why does open-angle glaucoma occur?

a.         Decreased production of aqueous humor

b.         Increased production of vitreous humor

 

c.         Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor

d.         Excessive destruction of vitreous humor

 

15. What is the basis of the specificity theory of pain?

a.         Injury to specific organs results in specific types of pain.

b.         Chronic pain is generally less intense than acute pain.

 

c.         The greater the tissue injury, the greater the pain.

d.         Acute pain is specific only to certain injuries.

 

16. What area of the brain mediates the executive attention functions?

a.         Limbic

 

b.         Prefrontal

c.         Parietal

d.         Occipital

 

17.       After a cerebrovascular accident, a patient has been diagnosed with anosognosia. What action by the healthcare professional would be most helpful?

a.         Provide a white board for the patient to write on.

 

b.         Ensure the patient has a safe environment.

c.         Provide physical therapy for strengthening exercises.

d.         Practice naming colors using flash cards.

 

18.       After a cerebrovascular accident, a man is unable to either feel or identify a comb with his eyes closed. What is this an example of?

a.         Agraphia

 

b.         Tactile agnosia

c.         Anosognosia

d.         Prosopagnosia

 

19.       Most aphasias are associated with cerebrovascular accidents involving which artery?

a.         Anterior communicating

b.         Posterior communicating

c.         Circle of Willis

 

d.         Middle cerebral

 

20. Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil following uncal herniation is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)?

a.         Optic (CN I)

b.         Abducens (CN VI)

 

c.         Oculomotor (CN III)

d.         Trochlear (CN IV)

 

21.       Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of which part of the brain?

a.         Hypothalamus

b.         Anterior pituitary

c.         Frontal lobe

 

d.         Basal ganglia

 

22.       Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which of the brain’s neurotransmitters?

 

a.         Gamma-aminobutyric acid

 

b.         Dopamine

c.         Norepinephrine

d.         Acetylcholine

 

23.       Tremors at rest, rigidity, akinesia, and postural abnormalities are a result of the atrophy of neurons in which part of the brain?

a.         Caudate that produces serotonin

b.         Putamen that produces gamma-aminobutyric acid

 

c.         Substantia nigra that produces dopamine

d.         Hypothalamus that produces acetylcholine

 

24.       A healthcare professional wants to volunteer for a community education project to help prevent spinal cord injury. What activity would the professional most likely volunteer for?

a.         Teaching school aged children bicycle safety

b.         Teaching stretching to high school athletes

c.         Teaching adults good body mechanics for lifting

 

d.         Teaching older adults how to prevent trip-and-fall events

 

25.       A patient has a spinal cord injury at C4. What should the healthcare professional assess as the priority in this patient?

a.         Blood pressure

 

b.         Respirations

c.         Pulse

d.         Temperature

 

26.       A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has a spinal cord injury at T5. The patient exhibits severe hypertension, a heart rate of 32 beats/min, and sweating above the spinal cord lesion. How does the professional chart this event?

a.         Craniosacral dysreflexia

b.         Parasympathetic dysreflexia

 

c.         Autonomic hyperreflexia

d.         Retrograde hyperreflexia

 

27.       Why does a person who has a spinal cord injury experience faulty control of sweating?

 

a.         The hypothalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to the sympathetic nervous system

. b. The thalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to the sympathetic nervous system.

c. The hypothalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to the parasympathetic nervous system.

d. The thalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to spinal nerve roots.

 

28.       A healthcare professional is planning a community event to reduce risk of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) in high risk groups. Which group would the professional target as the priority?

a.         Insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus

 

b.         Hypertension

c.         Polycythemia

d.         Smoking

 

29.       A right hemisphere embolic CVA has resulted in left-sided paralysis and reduced sensation of the left foot and leg. Which cerebral artery is most likely affected by the emboli?

a.         Middle cerebral

b.         Vertebral

c.         Posterior cerebral

 

d.         Anterior cerebral

 

30.       Which vascular malformation is characterized by arteries that feed directly into veins through vascular tangles of abnormal vessels?

a.         Cavernous angioma

b.         Capillary telangiectasia

c.         Arteriovenous angioma

 

d.         Arteriovenous malformation

 

31.       Which clinical finding is considered a diagnostic indicator for an arteriovenous malformation (AVM)?

 

a.         Systolic bruit over the carotid artery

b.         Decreased level of consciousness

c.         Hypertension with bradycardia

 

d.         Diastolic bruit over the temporal artery

 

32. A person has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis and asks the healthcare professional to explain the disease. What description by the professional is most accurate?

a.         Myelination of nerve fibers in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)

 

b.         Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS

c.         Development of neurofibrillary tangles in the CNS

d.         Inherited autosomal dominant trait with high penetrance

 

32.       Spinal cord injuries occur most frequently in which region?

a.         Cervical and thoracic

b.         Thoracic and lumbar

c.         Lumbar and sacral

 

d.         Cervical and thoracic lumbar

 

34.       A patient who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe headache and blurred vision. What should the healthcare professional do?

a.         Give the patient a glass of cool water.

b.         Give the patient some pain medication.

 

c.         Take the patient’s blood pressure and pulse.

d.         Facilitate the patient having a head CT scan.

 

35.       What is the type of vascular malformation that most often results in hemorrhage?

a.         Cavernous angioma

b.         Venous angioma

c.         Capillary telangiectasia

 

d.         Arteriovenous malformation

 

36. Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barré syndrome are similar in that they both do what?

 

a.         Result from demyelination by an immune reaction.

b.         Cause permanent destruction of peripheral nerves.

c.         Result from inadequate production of neurotransmitters.

d.         Block acetylcholine receptor sites at the myoneuronal junction.

 

37. Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

 

a.         Blunted affect

 

b.         Auditory hallucinations

c.         Poverty of speech

d.         Lack of social interaction

 

38.       A healthcare professional is seeing a patient with suspected schizophrenia. For which prenatal occurrence should the professional assess?

 

a.         Viral infection

b.         Maternal depression

c.         Maternal smoking

d.         Exposure to toxic waste

 

39.       Which neurotransmitter is reduced in people with schizophrenia?

a.         Dopamine

 

b.         Gamma-aminobutyric acid

c.         Acetylcholine

d.         Serotonin

 

40.       A patient has positive signs of schizophrenia and is scheduled for a brain scan. What part of the brain does the healthcare professional expect the scan will focus on?

a.         Parietal lobe

b.         Limbic system

 

c.         Temporal lobe

d.         Hypothalamus

 

41.       A patient has started on clozapine. The healthcare professional educates the patient that this drug blocks which neurotransmitter receptor?

a.         Norepinephrine

b.         Gamma-aminobutyric acid

c.         Serotonin

 

d.         Dopamine

 

42.       Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system abnormalities exist in a large percentage of individuals with what?

a.         Schizophrenia

 

b.         Major depression

c.         Mania

d.         Panic disorder

 

43.       The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they do what?

 

a.         Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse

b.         Increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse

c.         Decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse

d.         Decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse

 

44.       What is the link between major depression and cortisol secretion?

a.         Individuals with depression show suppression of plasma cortisol when given dexamethasone.

b.         Individuals with depression have a decreased plasma cortisol level, despite the administration of exogenous corticosteroids.

 

c.         Individuals with depression show that persistently elevated plasma cortisol levels can result in inflammation that is believed to trigger depression.

d.         Individuals with depression have normal plasma cortisol levels throughout the day when they take antidepressant medication as prescribed.

 

45.       A decrease in receptor binding for which neurotransmitter is found in individuals with depression?

a.         Norepinephrine

 

b.         Serotonin

c.         Dopamine

d.         Acetylcholine

 

46.       A severely depressed patient has been taking venlafaxine but is now pregnant and asks the healthcare professional what treatment options are available for her. What therapy does the professional discuss as a first choice?

 

a.         Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

b.         Switch to haloperidol

c.         Intensive psychotherapy until the baby is weaned

d.         Limit zinc and magnesium in the diet

 

47.       Gait disturbances and instability are characteristic of which form of cerebral palsy?

a.         Spastic

 

b.         Dystonic

 

c.         Ataxic

d.         Biochemical

 

48. A healthcare professional teaches a parenting class that benign febrile seizures are characterized by what?

a.         A temperature higher than 38.5?C (101.3?F)

 

b.         Concurrent respiratory or ear infections

c.         Onset after the fifth year of life

d.         Episodes lasting 30 min or longer

 

49. The clinical manifestations of dyskinetic cerebral palsy include what?

a.         Increased muscle tone and prolonged primitive reflexes

b.         Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes, clonus, and rigidity of extremities

c.         Scoliosis, contractures, and stiffness of trunk muscles

 

d.         Jerky uncontrolled and abrupt fine musculoskeletal movements

 

50. What imbalance lessens the rate of secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

 

a.         Increased serum calcium levels

b.         Decreased serum magnesium levels

c.         Decreased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone

d.         Increased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone

 

51.       Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. What is this an example of?

a.         Positive feedback

 

b.         Negative feedback

c.         Neural regulation

d.         Physiologic regulation

 

52.       Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a B-adrenergic receptor?

a.         Calcium

b.         Inositol triphosphate (IP3)

c.         Diacylglycerol (DAG)

 

d.         Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)

 

53.       Why is the control of calcium in cells important?

a.         It is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.

b.         It is continuously synthesized.

 

c.         It acts as a second messenger.

d.         It carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.

 

54. What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

a.         Increases serum calcium

 

b.         Decreases serum calcium

c.         Decreases serum magnesium

d.         Increases serum magnesium

 

55. A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone? a.

Cortisol

b.         Thyroid hormone

c.         Somatostatin

d.         Alpha endorphin

 

56. Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

 

a.         Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

b.         Thyroxine (T4)

c.         Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

d.         Triiodothyronine (T3)

 

57.       Where are target cells for parathyroid hormone located?

 

a.         Tubules of nephrons

b.         Thyroid gland

c.         Glomeruli of nephrons

d.         Smooth and skeletal muscles

 

58.       Which is an expected hormonal change in an older patient?

 

a.         Thyroid-stimulating hormone secretion below normal

b.         Triiodothyronine level below normal

 

c.         Cortisol level below normal

d.         Adrenocorticotropic hormone level above normal

 

59. What does Graves’ disease develop from?

a.         A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone

b.         An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue

 

c.         A thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d.         An ingestion of goitrogens that inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing a goiter

 

60.       Which pathologic changes are associated with Graves’ disease?

 

a.         High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b.         Diminished levels of thyrotropin-releasing hormone

c.         High levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone

d.         Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin

 

61.       A healthcare professional is palpating the neck of a person diagnosed with Graves’ disease. What finding would the professional associate with this disorder?

a.         Parathyroids left of midline

b.         Thyroid small with discrete nodules

c.         Parathyroids normal in size

 

d.         Thyroid diffusely enlarged

 

62.       A person has abnormally severe tooth decay and erosion of the tooth enamel. What problem should the health care professional assess the person for?

a.         Anorexia nervosa

b.         Binge eating

 

c.         Bulimia

d.         Refeeding syndrome

 

63. The stage of healing in the bone that involves procallus formation entails which process?

a.         Formation of a hematoma that allows the development of a fibrin network

 

b.         Production of granulation tissue by fibroblasts, capillary buds, and osteoblasts

c.         Development of a primitive bone matrix termed woven bone

d.         Remodeling of the periosteal and endosteal bone surfaces

 

64.       What is the function of the synovial membrane’s type A cells within the intima?

a.         To release mast cells, initiating the inflammatory process after joint injury

 

b.         To ingest and remove bacteria and debris by phagocytosis in the joint cavity

c.         To secrete hyaluronate, a binding agent that gives synovial fluid its viscous quality

d.         To store fat cells and glycogen, providing adenosine triphosphate for joint activity

 

65.       Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction?

a.         Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation

b.         Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling

c.         Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction

 

d.         Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation

 

66.       Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?

a.         Sodium

b.         Potassium

 

c.         Calcium

d.         Magnesium

 

67.       In which type of contraction does the muscle maintain a constant tension as it moves?

 

a.         Isotonic

b.         Isometric

c.         Hypertonic

d.         Hypotonic

 

68.       Which term is used to identify a functional muscle contraction in which the muscle contracts but the limb does not move?

a.         Isotonic

 

b.         Isometric

c.         Eccentric

d.         Concentric

 

69.       In osteoporosis, the receptor activator of nuclear factor ?B (RANK) activates what?

a.         Osteoclast apoptosis

b.         Osteoblast survival

 

c.         Osteoprotegerin

 

d.         Osteoclast survival

 

70.       Which hormone exerts antiapoptotic effects on osteoblasts but proapoptotic effects on osteoclasts?

a.         Parathyroid hormone

b.         Glucocorticoid

c.         Growth hormone

 

d.         Estrogen

  71. A patient has been diagnosed with Paget disease. What explanation of the disease does the health care professional provide the patient?

a.         “It is a severe infection in your bones.”

 

b.         “It is a problem with bone resorption and formation.”

c.         “It is a condition in which your bones become soft.”

d.         “It’s a disorder of altered energy production in muscle.”

 

72.       A patient has ankylosing spondylitis. Which description of this condition by the health care professional is most accurate?

 

a.         Chronic inflammatory disease with stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints

b.         Chronic systemic inflammatory disease that affects many tissues and organs

c.         State of abnormal and excessive bone resorption and formation

d.         Wide-spread and deep chronic muscle pain, fatigue, and tender points

 

73.       What is the primary pathologic alteration resulting from ankylosing spondylitis (AS)?

a.         Inflammation of the bursa

b.         Inflammation of the long bones

 

c.         Inflammation of fibrocartilaginous joints of the vertebrae

d.         Inflammation of the small hand and feet bones

 

74. What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

a.         Reduced excretion of purines

 

b.         Overproduction of uric acid

c.         Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels

d.         Overproduction of proteoglycans

 

 

75.       A healthcare professional working with children learns that which is the most common congenital skeletal defect of the upper extremity?

a.         Vestigial tabs

b.         Paget disease

c.         Rickets

 

d.         Syndactyly

 

76.       Which gland releases secretions that are important in thermoregulation and cooling of the body through evaporation?

a.         Sebaceous

b.         Apocrine

 

c.         Eccrine

d.         Exocrine

 

77.       Which receptors of the sympathetic nervous system regulate heat loss through the skin?

a.         Cholinergic

b.         B-Adrenergic

 

c.         a-Adrenergic

d.         Anticholinergic

78. The healthcare professional is assessing four patients for pressure ulcer formation. What is the first change in the skin that the professional would note if a patient were developing a pressure ulcer?

a.         Blanchable erythema of intact skin

 

b.         Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin

c.         Blister at the site of pressure

d.         Reddish-purple discoloration

 

79.       Which type of dressings should the healthcare professional apply to pressure ulcers?

a.         Flat and dry

 

b.         Flat, moisture-retaining

c.         Bulky and dry

d.         Bulky, moisture-retaining

 

 

80.       In latex allergies, which immunoglobulin (Ig) is associated with an immediate reaction?

a.         IgA

 

b.         IgE

c.         IgG

d.         IgM

 

81.       A patient in the clinic is diagnosed with dermatitis. The patient states that a previous healthcare professional diagnosed eczema. What response by the healthcare professional is best?

 

a.         “Both are general terms for a specific inflammatory response in the skin.”

b.         “Eczema is an older, outdated term. The preferred term is dermatitis.”

c.         “No, it’s not eczema. Eczema has yellowish scaly plaques.”

d.         “If it were eczema, it would have blisters that go away on their own.”

 

82.       What clinical manifestations do allergic contact and stasis dermatitis have in common?

a.         Petechiae and hyperpigmentation

b.         Edema and vesicular lesions

c.         Scaling and crusting of lesions

 

d.         Erythema and pruritus

 

83.       Lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous characterize which type of psoriasis?

 

a.         Plaque

b.         Inverse

c.         Guttate

d.         Erythrodermic

 

 

84. A patient shows the healthcare professional a collection of infected hair follicles on the back of the neck is red, painful, and draining. What condition does the professional educate the patient on?

 

a.         Erysipelas

b.         Furuncles

 

c.         Carbuncles

d.         Boils

 

85.       A child has been diagnosed with ringworm and the parent asks how to get rid of this parasite. What response by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?

a.         “We have several antibiotics that can be used.”

 

b.         “Ringworm is actually a fungal infection of the skin.”

c.         “Actually, ringworm is an old name for pemphigus.”

d.         “Inexpensive topical antifungals often work well.”

 

86.       Lesions that usually have depressed centers with rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck characterize which malignancy?

a.         Squamous cell carcinoma

b.         Kaposi sarcoma

c.         Malignant melanoma

 

d.         Basal cell carcinoma

87.       The student learns that alteration of which gene is associated with basal cell carcinoma?

a.         myc

 

b.         TP53

c.         src

d.         Ras

 

88.       Bowen disease is a form of which type of cancer?

a.         Kaposi sarcoma

b.         Malignant melanoma

c.         Basal cell carcinoma

 

d.         Squamous cell carcinoma

 

89.       A patient has an intradermal nevus. What assessment does the healthcare professional know is consistent with this lesion?

a.         Flat, dark, may be up to 2 cm in size

b.         Elevated and smooth surface

 

c.         Regular edges with bristle-like hairs

d.         Heaped-up, keratinized cells

 

90.       Which cell is thought to be the progenitor cell of Kaposi sarcoma?

 

a.         Endothelial

 

b.         Keratinocyte

c.         Melanocyte

d.         Exothelial

 

91.       A patient has a furuncle. Where would the healthcare professional assess the patient for this condition?

a.         Feet

b.         Palms

 

c.         Hair follicles

d.         Fingernails

 

92.       The disruption in cellular adhesion observed in bullous impetigo is caused by an exfoliative toxin related to which organism?

 

a.         Staphylococcus aureus

b.         Streptococcus pyogenes

c.         Escherichia coli

d.         Candida albicans

 

93.       A parent of a child in a crowded daycare is worried about the staff passing on a bacterial infection to the child. Which infection would be most likely?

a.         Atopic dermatitis

b.         Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome

 

c.         Impetigo

d.         Tinea capitis

 

94.       A parent reports a child has skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust. What treatment does the healthcare professional educate the parent about?

a.         Supportive care only

b.         Oral griseofulvin

c.         Topical corticosteroids

 

d.         Topical mupirocin

 

95.       A child has been diagnosed with tinea corporis. Which lesion would the healthcare professional assess for in this condition?

a.         Pink-to-red coalescing maculopapular rash on the face or trunk

 

b.         Vesicles that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust

 

c.         Circular (round or oval) lesions with erythema and scaling patches

d.         Red papules, vesicles, and pustules in clusters

 

96.       Parents do not want the child to contract tinea corporis. Which animal would they limit the child’s exposure to?

a.         Mites

 

b.         Kittens

c.         Ponies

d.         Ticks

 

97.       The student learns that the cause of molluscum contagiosum is which of these?

a.         Bacteria

 

b.         Virus

c.         Fungi

d.         Rickettsia

 

98.       The healthcare professional is teaching a group of new parents about childhood diseases. What does the professional tell them the incubation period for rubella is?

a.         3 to 5 days

 

b.         14 to 21 days

c.         7 to 10 days

d.         5 to 15 days

 

99.       Rubella (German or 3-day measles) is caused by what type of organism?

 

a.         Virus

b.         Bacterium

c.         Fungus

d.         Yeast

 

100.     Rubeola is a highly contagious acute disease in children caused by which type of infection?

a.         Bacterial

b.         Fungal

c.         Yeast

 

d.         Viral

 

101.     A student cannot remember the differences between rubeola and rubella. Which clinical manifestation does the healthcare professional tell the student is present in rubeola but not in rubella?

 

a.         Conjunctivitis

b.         Enlarged lymph nodes

c.         Presence of a cough

d.         Runny nose

 

102. A preschool teacher notices a child who has burrows on the hands that are several millimeters to 1 cm long, papules, and vesicular lesions. What other assessment finding would help the teacher determine the type of infestation the child has?

a.         Ask the child if he or she has been around puppies or kittens.

b.         Check the child’s hair for the presence of small mites.

 

c.         Ask the child if itching occurs especially at night

d.         Assess the child’s trunk and abdomen for petechiae.

 

103.     Which contagious disease is caused by the itch mite?

a.         Miliaria

b.         Tinea corporis

c.         Pediculosis

 

d.         Scabies

 

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