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Our Lady of The Lake University - PATHO 2410 Protection/Adaptation Test Bank Chapter 7 1)Neutrophils: a

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Our Lady of The Lake University - PATHO 2410

Protection/Adaptation Test Bank

Chapter 7

1)Neutrophils:

a.         Are phagocytic cells

b.         Produce histamine

c.         Produce antibodies

d.         Are elevated during an allergic response

 

2.         Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?

a.         T–helper cells

b.         Macrophages

c.         Eosinophils

d.         Monocytes

 

3.         Humoral immunity is mediated by:

a.         Natural killer cells

b.         T lymphocytes (T cells)

c.         B lymphocytes (B cells)

d.         Neutrophils

 

4.         A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:

a.         It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels.

b.         It is slower than the primary response and doesn’t change the antibody levels.

c.         It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies.

d.         It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease of antibodies.

 

5.         Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?

a.         Active natural

b.         Active artificial

c.         Passive natural

d.         Passive artificial

 

6.         When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called:

a.         Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

b.         Immune complex hypersensitivity

c.         Type I hypersensitivity

d.         Type IV hypersensitivity

 

7.         The role of memory cells is to:

a.         Change into an antibody-secreting cell following activation.

b.         Immediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen.

c.         Recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response.

d.         Bind complement to the antibody.

 

8.         Which statement applies to contact dermatitis?

a.         It occurs when IgE antibodies on the skin react with the causative substance.

b.         It may result from ingested foods.

c.         Urticaria (hives) gradually spread over the body.

d.         A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas.

 

9.         Which of the following causes anaphylaxis?

a.         A severe, systemic allergic reaction

b.         Type III hypersensitivity

c.         Cell-mediated hypersensitivity

d.         Immune complex deposits in many tissues

 

10.       Following a positive HIV antibodies blood test and ELISA test, what is the test commonly used for confirmation?

a.         Agglutination

b.         Double immunodiffusion test

c.         Western blot test

d.         Sedimentation rate test

 

11.       Incompatible blood transfusions result in:

a.         Hemolysis of erythrocytes.

b.         A type I immune response.

c.         Deposits in multiple organs.

d.         Immune deficiency.

 

12.       An autoimmune disease is:

a.         Excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material.

b.         An extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment.

c.         An abnormal response to ingested food and drugs.

d.         Failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.

 

13.       Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:

a.         A chronic allergic condition.

b.         Development of an immune-deficient state.

c.         A deficiency of T lymphocytes.

d.         Immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.

 

14.       Distinguishing clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus include:

a.         Inflammation in multiple organs.

b.         Lack of a specific diagnostic blood test.

c.         Acute onset and nonprogressive course.

d.         Typical skin rash on the chest and back.

 

15.       Which of the following are the target cells for HIV?

a.         Helper T lymphocytes (CD4 lymphocytes)

b.         B lymphocytes

c.         Natural killer cells

d.         Macrophages

 

16.       A diagnosis of HIV positive means that:

a.         The number of T lymphocytes in the circulating blood is decreased.

b.         Significant opportunistic infection is present in the body.

c.         The individual has AIDS.

d.         The virus and its antibodies are present in the blood.

 

17.       HIV infection impairs:

a.         Humoral immunity

b.         Cell-mediated immunity

c.         Both humoral and cell-mediated immunity

d.         Neither type of immunity

 

18.       Immunodeficiencies may result in an increased risk of infections by normally harmless microorganisms. These infections are referred to as:

a.         Opportunistic

b.         Prophylactic

c.         Abnormal

d.         Transient

 

19.       Serious infections frequently occurring in patients with AIDS include: (Select all that apply)

a.         Tuberculosis

b.         Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

c.         Influenza

d.         Tetanus

 

20.       Which of the following statements does NOT apply to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins or molecules?

a.         They are genes on chromosome 6.

b.         All members of a family have identical MHCs.

c.         They alert the immune system to virus-infected cells.

d.         A close match is essential for successful tissue transplants.

 

21.       CD4-positive helper T cells function by:

a.         Direct cytotoxic action.

b.         Facilitating all immune system activity.

c.         Producing immunoglobulins.

d.         Inactivating allergens.

 

22.       Host-versus-graft disease refers to:

a.         Hyperacute rejection of tissue.

b.         T cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells.

c.         Infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy.

d.         Transplant rejection by the recipient’s immune system.

 

23.       Which of the following complications does NOT occur frequently in AIDS patients?

a.         Kaposi’s sarcoma

b.         Wasting syndrome

c.         Lymphoma

d.         Polyarthritis

 

24.       Which of the following characteristics apply to HIV? (Select all that apply)

a.         It contains two strands of DNA.

b.         It tends to mutate frequently to form new strains.

c.         The incubation period is extremely short.

d.         It is inactivated by heat and many disinfectants.

 

25.       In cases of HIV infection, the “window period” refers to the time between:

a.         Entry of the virus into the blood and the initial manifestations.

b.         Entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood.

c.         Entry of the virus into the body and a significant drop in CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count.

d.         Diagnosis of “HIV positive” and diagnosis of “AIDS.”

 

26.       Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They:

a.         Activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes.

b.         Destroy antigens quickly.

c.         Increase the rate of mitosis in tumors.

d.         Cause immediate pain.

 

27.       What does seroconversion mean in relation to HIV and AIDS?

a.         The virus has been identified in the blood and body fluids.

b.         Antibodies for HIV have been identified in the blood.

c.         HIV was found in lymphocytes.

d.         Active infection has developed in the patient.

 

28.       Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a patient who is HIV positive?

a.         No medication is required until the CD4 cell count drops below normal range.

b.         Antibodies are present, destroying the virus and preventing transmission to others.

c.         Antibodies in the blood indicate presence of virus and possible transmission to others.

d.         Enzymes have not yet converted RNA to DNA for replication.

 

29.       The term tolerance refers to:

a.         Surveillance and destruction of new cancer cells by the immune system.

b.         The ability of the immune system to ignore “self” cells.

c.         The ability of T and B lymphocytes to work together.

d.         The role of lymphoid tissue in the body defenses.

 

30.       Which of the following statements applies to the complement system?

a.         It is activated by IgE.

b.         It blocks the inflammatory response.

c.         It consists of proteins in the blood that must be activated.

d.         It may destroy antibodies in the circulation.

 

31.       Which of the following statements regarding immunoglobulins is TRUE?

a.         They consist of a unique sequence of amino acids.

b.         They are produced in the red bone marrow.

c.         They are attached to mucosal membranes at entry points into the body.

d.         IgA binds to allergens.

 

32.       Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?

a.         Hypoplasia of the thymus

b.         Delayed hypersensitivity

c.         Immunosuppressive drugs

d.         Atrophy of the lymph nodes

 

33.       Which statement is TRUE regarding infants born to HIV-infected mothers?

a.         Infants usually test negative for HIV after birth.

b.         There is little risk of infected mothers passing the virus to their infants during delivery.

c.         Breast milk does not contain HIV or antibodies.

d.         Infants test positive for HIV because of the presence of maternal antibodies.

 

34.       The most common cause of death in patients who have AIDS is:

a.         HIV encephalopathy.

b.         Tuberculosis.

c.         Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.

d.         Candida infection.

 

35.       Tissue transferred between two genetically identical twins is referred to as a/an:

a.         Allograft.

b.         Syngraft.

c.         Isograft.

d.         Autograft.

 

Chapter 21

1.         Which of the following statements applies to the sex chromosomes?

a.         They are identified as XY in the female.

b.         They are numbered pair 23 in the karyotype

c.         They contain the same genes as in the other pairs of chromosomes.

d.         They are found only in the cells in the gonads (the ovaries and the testes).

 

2.         What is the term for an arrangement of the chromosomes from an individual’s cell, organized in pairs based on size and shape?

a.         Pedigree

b.         Punnett squares

c.         Karyotype

d.         Genotype

 

3.         What is characteristic of a congenital disorder?

a.         Genes are not involved.

b.         It is strictly a developmental anomaly.

c.         A cause is known.

d.         It is usually manifested in the neonatal period.

 

4.         What is the probability of two parents, both carriers of a defective recessive gene, producing a homozygous child (with each pregnancy)?

a.         0%

b.         25%

c.         50%

d.         75%

 

5.         In the case of an X-linked recessive disorder, a carrier mother and unaffected father could produce a/an:

a.         Normal female

b.         Affected female

c.         Male carrier

 

6.         Down syndrome is an example of a/an:

a.         Autosomal dominant disorder

b.         Multifactorial disorder

c.         Developmental defect

d.         Chromosomal defect

 

7.         Agents that cause damage during embryonic or fetal development are called:

a.         Teratogenic

b.         Mutagenic

c.         Multifactorial agents

d.         Polygenic agents

 

8.         What is an example of a multifactorial congenital disorder?

a.         Type AB blood

b.         Down syndrome

c.         Color blindness

d.         Cleft lip and palate

 

9.         Ultrasonography during pregnancy would be helpful in detecting fetal:

a.         Enzyme deficits

b.         Structural anomalies

c.         Chromosomal defects

d.         Hormonal abnormalities

 

10.       Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is TRUE?

a.         The typical physical characteristics are present at birth.

b.         All children with Down syndrome have the same organ defects and medical problems.

c.         The extent of cognitive impairment can be assessed at birth.

d.         The birth of a child with Down syndrome is only a risk to mothers over age 35.

 

11.       Which of the following statements applies to Huntington’s disease?

a.         The effects are obvious at birth.

b.         There is a test for the defective gene.

c.         There is a 50% probability that the child of an affected parent will be a carrier.

d.         The child must inherit the defective gene from both parents in order to be affected.

 

12.       A mother is a carrier of Duchenne muscular dystrophy; the father is unaffected. They have one son with muscular dystrophy. Another male child is expected. The probability of the second son having muscular dystrophy is:

a.         100%

b.         50%

c.         25%

d.         0%

 

13.       Hemophilia A has been diagnosed in a young boy. He has inherited this defective gene from:

a.         His father

b.         His mother

c.         Both parents

 

14.       A father affected with hemophilia A, whose wife is unaffected, will pass on the defective gene to:

a.         All of his sons, who will be affected.

b.         50% of his sons, who will be affected.

c.         All of his daughters, who will be carriers.

d.         50% of his daughters, who will be carriers.

 

15.       Which of the following are common manifestations of Down syndrome? (Select all that apply)

a.         Congenital heart defect

b.         Cleft lip and palate

c.         Large protruding tongue

d.         Limited intellectual development

 

16.       A spontaneous alteration in genetic material that may result from exposure to harmful substances is termed:

a.         Autosome

b.         Genotype

c.         Meiosis

d.         Mutation

 

17.       A person with sickle cell trait that is heterozygous has:

a.         An incomplete dominant gene

b.         A multifactorial condition

c.         Co-dominant genes

d.         X-linked dominant trait

 

18.       TORCH is an acronym for routine prenatal screening tests for high-risk maternal infections; TORCH stands for:

a.         Toxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes.

b.         Tuberculosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and HIV.

c.         Toxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and HIV.

d.         Tuberculosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and herpes.

 

19.       Which statement applies to the effects of exposure to harmful substances during embryonic life? (Select all that apply)

a.         During the first two weeks, exposure will usually cause death of the embryo.

b.         Organs or body structures may be altered by exposure during the first two months.

c.         The effects of exposure depend on the stage of development at the time of exposure.

d.         Metabolic abnormalities usually follow exposure to teratogens.

 

20.       Exposure to cocaine during pregnancy leads to increased risk of:

a.         Premature birth

b.         Respiratory problems

c.         Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

d.         All of the above

 

21.       Which term refers to prenatal diagnosis through examination of amniotic fluid?

a.         Chorionic villus testing

b.         Preparing a family pedigree

c.         Amniocentesis

d.         Triple-screen test

 

22.       The laboratory practice of changing DNA sequences in microorganisms is called:

a.         The genotype

b.         Gene mutation

c.         Genetic engineering

d.         Gene therapy

 

23.       The purpose of the Human Genome Project was to:

a.         Map the nucleotide sequence and identify the genes on each human chromosome.

b.         Study the common patterns of inheritance of single-gene disorders.

c.         Manipulate the sequence of DNA in microorganisms and animals.

d.         Identify spontaneous alterations in genetic material caused by teratogens.

 

24.       Developmental disorders can result from all the following EXCEPT:

a.         Exposure to radiation

b.         Mercury in foods and water

c.         Drugs and alcohol

d.         Folic acid

 

25.       Genes located at the same site on a pair of homologous chromosomes that are also matched for function are called:

a.         Alleles

b.         Genotypes

c.         Autosomes

d.         Phenotypes

 

26.       Which of the following can easily pass through the placental barrier?

a.         Many viruses

b.         Some heavy metals

c.         Certain chemicals

d.         All of the above

 

27.       The term proteomics refers to the study of:

a.         DNA sequences with unknown functions.

b.         Gene sequences in individual chromosomes.

c.         The proteins resulting from activation of specific genes.

d.         Identifying certain base pairs in DNA.

 

28.       The most invasive prenatal screening test for fetal abnormalities is:

a.         Ultrasonography

b.         Amniocentesis

c.         X-ray

d.         Blood tests

 

29.       Which of the following can be detected using amniotic fluid?

a.         Chromosomal abnormalities

b.         Metabolic disorders

c.         Certain structural abnormalities

d.         All the above

 

30.       Blood tests are performed on neonates primarily to:

a.         Determine need for immediate surgical correction of anomalies.

b.         Identify disorders requiring immediate treatment.

c.         Identify the presence of any inherited disorders.

d.         Rule out the presence of any infection.

 

31.       When genetic influences combine with environmental factors to cause an abnormality, the result is called a:

a.         Chromosomal disorder.

b.         Developmental disorder.

c.         Multifactorial disorder.

d.         Single-gene disorder.

 

32.       The cellular division process that produces the chromosomes that are in the sperm and ova is called:

a.         Meiosis

b.         Mitosis

c.         Organogenesis

d.         Polysomy

 

Chapter 20

1.         What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?

a.         Adenoma

b.         Lipoma

c.         Fibrosarcoma

d.         Adenocarcinoma

 

2.         What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?

a.         Carcinomas

b.         Sarcomas

c.         Melanomas

d.         Fibromas

 

3.         Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?

a.         It is unencapsulated and invasive.

b.         It consists of undifferentiated cells.

c.         It exerts systemic effects.

d.         Cells appear relatively normal.

 

4.         Which factor provides the basis for the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?

a.         Size of the tumor

b.         Number of metastases

c.         Degree of differentiation of the cells

d.         Number of lymph nodes involved

 

5.         A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:

a.         Persistent, unusual bleeding.

b.         A change in bowel habits.

c.         Sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea.

d.         A change in shape, color, or surface of a skin lesion.

 

6.         The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include: (Select all that apply)

a.         Obstruction of a tube or duct

b.         Anemia and weight loss

c.         Cell necrosis and ulceration

d.         Tumor markers in the circulation

 

7.         Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?

a.         The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells

b.         Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer

c.         The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors

d.         The effects of multiple metastatic tumors

 

8.         Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?

a.         Invasiveness

b.         Seeding

c.         Metastasis

d.         Systemic effect

 

9.         One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:

a.         Identify the original cell from which the tumor developed.

b.         Locate and identify the primary tumor.

c.         Decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor.

d.         Determine the best treatment and prognosis.

 

10.       The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:

a.         Exposure to promoters causing dysplasia.

b.         Development of defective genes.

c.         An irreversible change in the cell DNA.

d.         A single exposure to a known risk factor causing temporary cell damage.

 

11.       What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?

a.         A needle containing a radioisotope implanted beside the tumor

b.         Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine

c.         A dose of a radioactive drug to be ingested

d.         A fluid containing radioactive material instilled in a body cavity

 

12.       Radiation therapy destroys:

a.         All cells in the tumor at one time.

b.         The cells in the center of the tumor.

c.         Primarily rapidly dividing cells.

d.         Radioresistant cells.

 

13.       The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:

a.         Thrombocytopenia and leucopenia

b.         Headache and lethargy

c.         Nausea and constipation

d.         Alopecia and weight loss

 

14.       Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to: (Select all that apply)

a.         Reduce the adverse effects.

b.         Guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed.

c.         Be effective in more phases of the cell cycle.

d.         Totally block the mitotic stage.

 

15.       Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?

a.         The ovaries are inaccessible for examination.

b.         Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.

c.         The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer.

d.         No effective treatment is available.

 

16.       Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker:

a.         Colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

b.         Hepatic cancer: CA125, AFP

c.         Prostate cancer: human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

d.         Testicular cancer: Philadelphia chromosome

 

17.       Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by:

a.         Promoting the immune response and removal of abnormal tumor cells.

b.         Blocking hormonal stimulation of tumor cells.

c.         Reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells.

d.         Transporting radioisotopes into the tumor.

 

18.       The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means:

a.         The cancer cells are being destroyed quickly.

b.         The patient is likely to hemorrhage.

c.         Higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient.

d.         The patient is at high risk for infection.

 

19.       Malignant brain tumors:

a.         Metastasize quickly to all parts of the body.

b.         Spread first to lungs and bone.

c.         Spread to other parts of CNS.

d.         Do not metastasize anywhere at any time.

 

20.       Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:

a.         Alopecia

b.         Bone marrow depression

c.         Nausea and vomiting

d.         Weight loss

 

21.       Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:

a.         Glucocorticoids greatly potentiate the effect of chemotherapy.

b.         The immune system is stimulated.

c.         Skeletal muscle atrophy will be decreased.

d.         Inflammation around the tumor may be reduced.

 

22.       Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because:

a.         The gastrointestinal tract is irritated.

b.         The chemicals stimulate the emetic center.

c.         The drugs have an unpleasant odor.

d.         A and B

 

23.       What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?

a.         Epithelial cells

b.         Skeletal muscle cells

c.         Nerve tissue

d.         Collagen and fibrous tissue

 

24.       Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:

a.         Chemotherapy cannot be used.

b.         Signs and symptoms are absent.

c.         Complications are evident.

d.         Metastases occur.

 

25.       All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers EXCEPT:

a.         They are difficult to diagnose and treat.

b.         They usually develop slowly on the head, neck, or back of individuals with fair skin.

c.         The number of skin cancer cases is increasing.

d.         Basal cell carcinoma is the most common form of skin cancer.

 

 

26.       High risk factors for cancer include: (Select all that apply)

a.         Human papilloma virus.

b.         Chronic irritation and inflammation.

c.         Repeated sun exposure.

d.         High family incidence.

 

27.       The term apoptosis refers to:

a.         Programmed cell death.

b.         Abnormal or immature cells.

c.         Degree of differentiation of cells.

d.         The development of new capillaries in a tumor.

 

28.       The warning signs for cancer include:

a.         Unusual bleeding

b.         Change in a wart or mole (e.g., color)

c.         A new solid lump, often painless

d.         All of the above

 

29.       A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called:

a.         Seeding

b.         Mutation

c.         Staging

d.         Grading

 

30.       Benign tumors can often be differentiated from malignant tumors because benign tumors:

a.         Often have systemic effects.

b.         Contain cells showing increased mitosis and atypical rapid growth.

c.         Are encapsulated and slow-growing.

d.         Can metastasize or invade nearby tissue.

 

31.       Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they:

a.         Metastasize early in their development.

b.         Create excessive pressure within the skull.

c.         Cannot be removed.

d.         Cause serious systemic effects.

 

32.       Drugs or agents that augment the natural immune response in the body to improve identification and removal of abnormal cells are called:

a.         Biological response modifiers.

b.         Angiogenesis stimulators.

c.         Analgesic complements.

d.         Targeted receptor modifiers.

 

33.       The method that can be used as an alternative to surgical removal of a tumor by using heat generated by a needle inserted into the tumor is referred to as:

a.         Radiation therapy

b.         Thermolysis intervention

c.         Brachytherapy

d.         Radiofrequency ablation

 

34.       Staging systems used to classify a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis are based on which of the following factors?

a.         Size of the tumor, involvement of lymph nodes, metastases

b.         Location of tumor, size, type of cellular abnormality

c.         Size, encapsulated or non-encapsulated, invasion into neighboring tissue

d.         Type of cellular abnormality, size of secondary tumors, location/tissue affected

 

35.       One of the general effects of a malignant cancer is cachexia, which is:

a.         Severe bleeding

b.         Severe tissue wasting

c.         Severe fatigue