Homework answers / question archive / Our Lady of The Lake University-PATHO 2410 Nutrition/Elimination Sexuality Test Bank Chapter 18 1)Which of the following structures is most likely to be located in the renal medulla? a

Our Lady of The Lake University-PATHO 2410 Nutrition/Elimination Sexuality Test Bank Chapter 18 1)Which of the following structures is most likely to be located in the renal medulla? a

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Our Lady of The Lake University-PATHO 2410

Nutrition/Elimination Sexuality Test Bank

Chapter 18

1)Which of the following structures is most likely to be located in the renal medulla?

a.         Proximal convoluted tubule

b.         Glomerulus

c.         Loop Of Henle

d.         Afferent arteriole

 

2.         Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney?

a.         Regulation of body fluid concentrations

b.         Removal of nitrogenous and acidic wastes

c.         Activation of vitamin D

d.         Production of albumin

 

3.         Which of the following describes the correct flow of blood in the kidney?

a.         Afferent arteriole to the peritubular capillaries to the venule

b.         Efferent arteriole to the glomerular capillaries to the peritubular capillaries

c.         Peritubular capillaries to the glomerular capillaries to the venule

d.         Afferent arteriole to the glomerular capillaries to the efferent arteriole

 

4.         Which of the following describes the flow of filtrate in the kidney?

a.         The collecting duct to the distal convoluted tubule to the renal pelvis

b.         Bowman’s capsule to the proximal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle

c.         The loop of Henle to the collecting duct to Bowman’s capsule

d.         The distal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle to the collecting duct

 

5.         Which of the following describes the normal flow of urine?

a.         Collecting duct to the renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder

b.         Renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder to the ureter

c.         Ureter to the renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder

d.         Collecting duct to the ureter to the urethra

 

6.         Which statement about the bladder is TRUE?

a.         The bladder wall lacks rugae.

b.         Three openings from the urinary bladder form the trigone.

c.         It contracts when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.

d.         Continuous peristalsis in the bladder wall promotes urine flow.

 

7.         Which of the following increases glomerular filtration rate?

a.         Increased plasma osmotic pressure

b.         Dilation of the efferent arteriole

c.         Increased hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries

d.         Constriction of the afferent arteriole

 

8.         By what process is water reabsorbed from the filtrate?

a.         Osmosis

b.         Active transport

c.         Cotransport

d.         Capillary action

 

9.         Which substance directly controls the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts?

a.         Renin

b.         Aldosterone

c.         Angiotensin

d.         Antidiuretic hormone

 

10.       Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?

a.         The urine pH decreases

b.         Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases

c.         Serum potassium levels are high

d.         Serum osmotic pressure increases

 

11.       Which of the following should be present in the filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule?

a.         Plasma proteins

b.         Erythrocytes

c.         Sodium ions

d.         Leukocytes

 

12.       From the following, choose the substance likely to appear in the urine when the glomerulus is inflamed.

a.         Albumin

b.         Urea

c.         Sodium

d.         Creatinine

 

13.       Involuntary urination by a child after age 4 or 5, when bladder control is expected, is referred to as:

a.         Enuresis

b.         Stress intolerance

c.         Micturition

d.         Overflow incontinence

 

14.       When a respiratory infection with high fever is present in the body, how would the kidney tubules maintain normal pH of body fluids?

a.         Increase the flow of filtrate

b.         Secrete more acids and reabsorb more bicarbonate ions

c.         Excrete a larger volume of more dilute urine

d.         Retain more potassium ions in exchange or sodium ions

 

15.       When comparing normal kidney function with dialysis, which of the following mechanisms is not possible in dialysis?

a.         Diffusion

b.         Osmosis

c.         Ultrafiltration

d.         Active transport

 

16.       What is the cause of most cases of pyelonephritis?

a.         An ascending infection by E. coli

b.         Abnormal immune response, causing inflammation

c.         Dialysis or other invasive procedure

d.         Severe pH imbalance of urine

 

17.       Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria?

a.         Nephrotic syndrome

b.         Cystitis

c.         Glomerulonephritis

d.         Urolithiasis

 

18.       Why may acute pyelonephritis and cystitis follow untreated prostatitis?

a.         Microbes spread through the circulation.

b.         Antibodies have not yet formed.

c.         There is no effective treatment.

d.         There is a continuous mucosa along the involved structures.

 

19.       Pyelonephritis may be distinguished from cystitis by the presence in pyelonephritis of:

a.         Microbes, leukocytes, and pus in the urine

b.         Painful micturition

c.         Urgency and frequency

d.         Urinary casts and flank pain

 

20.       In a case of acute pyelonephritis, what is the cause of flank pain?

a.         Inflammation, causing ischemia in the tubules

b.         Inflammation, stretching the renal capsule

c.         Increasing glomerular permeability, creating an increased volume of filtrate in the kidney

d.         Microbes irritating the tissues

 

21.       Which pathophysiological process applies to acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

a.         Streptococcal infection affects both the glomerular and tubule functions

b.         Ischemic damage occurs in the tubules, causing obstruction and decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

c.         Immune complexes deposit in glomerular tissue, causing inflammation

d.         Increased glomerular permeability for unknown reasons

 

22.       What causes the dark urine associated with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

a.         Blood and protein leaking through the capillary into the filtrate

b.         Proteinuria and microscopic hematuria from the inflammation

c.         Pyuria from inflammatory exudate

d.         Bleeding from ulcerations in the kidneys

 

23.       Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:

a.         Albuminuria increases vascular volume

b.         Congestion and ischemia stimulate release of renin

c.         Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is decreased

d.         Damaged tubules absorb large amounts of filtrate

 

24.       Urinary casts are present with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis because:

a.         Large numbers of microbe and leukocytes enter the filtrate

b.         Ruptured capillaries release debris into the tubules

c.         Normal reabsorption of cells and proteins cannot take place

d.         Inflamed tubules compress red blood cells (RBCs) and protein into a typical mass

 

25.       Which disease would cause an increased ASO titer and elevated serum ASK?

a.         Nephrotic syndrome

b.         Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

c.         Pyelonephritis

d.         Polycystic kidney

 

26.       Why does metabolic acidosis develop with bilateral kidney disease?

a.         Tubule exchanges are impaired

b.         GFR is increased

c.         Serum urea is increased

d.         More bicarbonate ion is produced

 

27.       What is the first indicator in the arterial blood gases of acidosis caused by glomerulonephritis?

a.         Increased carbonic acid

b.         Increased bicarbonate ion

c.         A pH less than 7.35

d.         Decreased bicarbonate ion

 

28.       What would be the long-term effects of chronic infection or inflammation of the kidneys?

a.         Dehydration and hypovolemia

b.         Gradual necrosis, fibrosis, and development of uremia

c.         Sudden anuria and azotemia

d.         Severe back or flank pain

 

29.       What factors contribute to headache, anorexia, and lethargy with kidney disease?

a.         Increased blood pressure

b.         Elevated serum urea

c.         Anemia

d.         Acidosis

 

30.       What are the significant signs of nephrotic syndrome?

a.         Hyperlipidemia and lipiduria

b.         Pyuria and leucopenia

c.         Hypertension and heart failure

d.         Gross hematuria and pyuria

 

31.       Why does blood pressure often remain near normal in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

a.         Massive amounts of fluid are lost from the body with polyuria.

b.         Renin and aldosterone are no longer secreted.

c.         Tubules do not respond to ADH and aldosterone.

d.         Hypovolemia results from fluid shift to the interstitial compartment.

 

32.       Common causes of urolithiasis include all of the following EXCEPT:

a.         Hypercalcemia

b.         Hyperlipidemia

c.         Inadequate fluid intake

d.         Hyperuricemia

 

33.       Which of the following results from obstruction of the left ureter by a renal calculus?

a.         Mild flank pain on the affected side

b.         Hydronephrosis in both kidneys

c.         Immediate cessation of urine production

d.         An attack of renal colic

 

34.       What does hydronephrosis lead to?

a.         Ischemia and necrosis in the compressed area

b.         Multiple hemorrhages in the kidney

c.         Severe colicky pain radiating into the groin

d.         Increased GFR

 

35.       Which of the following is a predisposing factor to bladder cancer?

a.         Prostatic cancer

b.         Hormonal abnormalities

c.         Exposure to chemicals and cigarette smoke

d.         Presence of embryonic tissue

 

36.       What is the common initial sign of adenocarcinoma of the kidney?

a.         Gross hematuria

b.         Microscopic hematuria

c.         Shark flank pain

d.         Oliguria

 

37.       Which of the following does NOT usually result from nephrosclerosis?

a.         Secondary hypertension

b.         Chronic renal failure

c.         Acute renal failure

d.         Increased renin and aldosterone secretions

 

38.       Which of the following relates to polycystic kidney disease?

a.         It affects only one of the kidneys.

b.         It results in gradual degeneration and chronic renal failure.

c.         The kidneys are displaced and the ureters are twisted.

d.         The prognosis is good because there is adequate reserve for normal life.

 

39.       Which of the following is related to Wilms’ tumor?

a.         Direct exposure to carcinogens

b.         Hormonal imbalance

c.         Repeated infections

d.         A genetic defect

 

40.       With severe kidney disease, either hypokalemia or hyperkalemia may occur and cause:

a.         Cardiac arrhythmias

b.         Encephalopathy

c.         Hypervolemia

d.         Skeletal muscle twitch or spasm

 

41.       Which of the following indicates the early stage of acute renal failure?

a.         Polyuria with urine of fixed and low specific gravity

b.         Hypotension and increased urine output

c.         Development of decompensated acidosis

d.         Very low GFR and increased serum urea

 

42.       What is/are a cause(s) of acute tubule necrosis and acute renal failure?

a.         Prolonged circulatory shock

b.         Sudden significant exposure to nephrotoxins

c.         Crush injuries or burns

d.         All of the above

 

43.       Which of the following would likely cause chronic renal failure?

a.         Cystitis with pyelonephritis in the right kidney

b.         Circulatory shock

c.         Diabetes

d.         Obstruction of a ureter by a renal calculus

 

44.       What causes polyuria during the stage of renal insufficiency?

a.         Loss of tubule function

b.         Increased blood pressure

c.         Decreased aldosterone secretion

d.         Increased GFR

 

45.       What is the primary reason for hypocalcemia developing during end-stage renal failure or uremia?

a.         Decreased parathyroid hormone secretion

b.         Insufficient calcium in the diet

c.         Excessive excretion of calcium ions in the urine

d.         A deficit of activated vitamin D and hyperphosphatemia

 

46.       Cystitis is more common in females because:

a.         The mucosa in the urinary tract is continuous

b.         The urethra is short, wide, and adjacent to areas with resident flora

c.         The pH of urine is more acidic in females

d.         Females have a higher incidence of congenital abnormalities

 

47.       Which of the following indicate a decreased GFR?

a.         Increased serum urea and decreased serum bicarbonate

b.         Urine with low specific gravity and dark color

c.         Albuminuria and hematuria

d.         Hyponatremia and hypokalemia

 

48.       Which of the following is NOT likely to lead to hydronephrosis?

a.         Renal calculi

b.         Pyelonephritis

c.         Nephrosclerosis

d.         Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

 

49.       Which of the following congenital defects is a common cause of cystitis in young children?

a.         Polycystic kidney

b.         Horseshoe kidney

c.         Hypoplasia of the kidney

d.         Vesicoureteral reflux

 

50.       Which factor contributes to severe anemia in individuals with chronic renal failure?

a.         Increased erythropoietin secretion

b.         Limited protein intake

c.         Compensatory increase in bone marrow activity

d.         Inability to absorb vitamin B12 and iron

 

51.       When acidosis becomes decompensated in renal failure, a key indicator is:

a.         Increased PCO2

b.         Increased bicarbonate ion

c.         Serum pH dropping below 7.35

d.         Serum buffer ration of 20 bicarbonate ions to 1 carbonic acid

 

52.       What is the primary action of the diuretic furosemide?

a.         Decreased reabsorption of sodium and water

b.         Decreased reabsorption of H+ in the tubules

c.         Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone

d.         Inhibition of renin

 

53.       Which of the following causes acute renal failure?

a.         Polycystic kidney disease

b.         Pyelonephritis in the right kidney

c.         Nephrosclerosis

d.         Bilateral acute glomerulonephritis

 

54.       Which of the following is a significant indicator of renal insufficiency?

a.         Urine with pH of 5

b.         Increased serum urea and creatinine

c.         Urine with high specific gravity

d.         Decreased blood pressure

 

55.       Uremic signs of renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT:

a.         Encephalopathy

b.         High blood pressure

c.         Osteodystrophy

d.         Azotemia and acidosis

 

56.       Choose the basic cause of osteodystrophy associated with chronic renal failure.

a.         Development of hypercalcemia

b.         Deficit of parathyroid hormone

c.         Failure of the kidney to activate vitamin D

d.         Excessive loss of phosphate ion

 

57.       Agenesis is often not diagnosed because:

a.         The kidney is displaced from its normal position

b.         It is a genetic defect and asymptomatic until mid-life

c.         The two functioning kidneys are fused together

d.         It is usually asymptomatic as one kidney provides adequate function

 

58.       The normal pH of urine is: a. 7.34-7.45

b.   4.5-8.0

c.         1.5-7.5

d.   1.0-7.0

 

59.       Wilms’ tumor is:

a.         A malignant tumor in the bladder

b.         An encapsulated mass in one kidney

c.         Not considered to have a genetic origin

d.         Manifested in adulthood

 

60.       Reduced urine output resulting from inflammation and necrosis of the tubules is called:

a.         Oliguria

b.         Anuria

c.         Pyuria

d.         Polyuria

 

61.       The micturition reflex is initiated by:

a.         Sympathetic nerves in the sacral spinal cord

b.         Relaxation of the internal sphincter of the bladder

c.         Increased pressure distending the bladder

d.         Contraction of the bladder

 

62.       Which of the following results from decreased blood flow into the kidneys?

a.         Decreasing blood pressure

b.         Dilation of the afferent arterioles

c.         Decreased aldosterone secretion

d.         Increased angiotensin and systemic vasoconstriction

 

63.       In acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, the glomerular inflammation results from:

a.         Toxins produced by the bacteria

b.         A type III hypersensitivity reaction

c.         An ascending infection rom the bladder

d.         Spread of infection from the tubules

 

64.       In acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, the inflammation causes:

a.         Increases permeability of the glomerular capillaries

b.         Glomerular congestion and decreased GFR

c.         Decreased blood pressure and edema

d.         A and B

 

65.       Circulatory shock causes:

a.         Decreased GFR and increased renin secretion

b.         Increased ADH and decreased aldosterone secretion

c.         Immediate tubule necrosis and obstruction

d.         Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) stimulation and vasodilation of afferent and efferent arterioles

 

66.       Autoregulation in the kidneys refers to:

a.         Control of blood flow by the SNS

b.         The secretion of renin and activation of angiotensin

c.         Local minor reflex adjustments in the arterioles to maintain normal blood flow

d.         The control of systemic blood pressure by the kidneys

 

67.       The reabsorption of water and electrolytes by the kidneys is directly controlled by:

a.         Atrial natriuretic hormone

b.         Antidiuretic hormone

c.         Angiotensin

d.         The levels of bicarbonate ion

 

68.       Uncontrolled essential hypertension may cause chronic renal failure because of:

a.         Predisposition to recurrent urinary tract infections

b.         Damage to afferent arterioles and renal ischemia

c.         Failure of tubules to respond to hormonal controls

d.         Glomerular congestion causes damaged capillaries

 

69.       Urine with a low specific gravity is usually related to:

a.         An infection of the gallbladder

b.         Renal failure due to tubule damage

c.         Lack of sufficient fluid intake

d.         Presence of numerous renal calculi

 

70.       Excess urea and other nitrogen wastes in the blood is referred to as:

a.         Dysuria

b.         Azotemia

c.         Bacteremia

d.         Hematuria

 

Chapter 19

1.         Which statement about the testes is TRUE?

a.         Each testis contains the ductus deferens.

b.         The testes are suspended by the spermatic cord.

c.         Each testis has its own scrotal sac and seminal vesicle.

d.         The testes must be kept at a temperature slightly above body temperature.

 

2.         Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE?

a.         The complete process takes about 28 days.

b.         Maturation of sperm takes place in the seminal vesicles.

c.         It is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone.

d.         The process is initiated after each ejaculation.

 

3.         Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?

a.         Infertility

b.         Testicular cancer

c.         Both A and B

d.         Neither A nor B

 

4.         Which term refers to excessive fluid collecting between the layers of the tunica vaginalis?

a.         Varicocele

b.         Hypospadias

c.         Spermatocele

d.         Hydrocele

 

5.         Which of the following are common early significant signs of acute prostatitis?

a.         A hard nodule in the gland and pelvic pain

b.         Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria

c.         Hesitancy and increased urinary output

d.         Mild fever, vomiting, and leucopenia

 

6.         Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy?

a.         The tumor usually becomes malignant in time.

b.         The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm.

c.         Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency.

d.         Lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops.

 

7.         Why does frequent need for urination occur with benign prostatic hypertrophy?

a.         Increased volume of dilute urine

b.         Irritation of the bladder and urethra

c.         Impaired micturition reflex

d.         Incomplete emptying of the bladder

 

8.         Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer?

a.         Bone

b.         Lungs

c.         Liver

d.         Testes

 

9.         What is a useful serum marker during treatment for prostatic cancer?

a.         Human chorionic gonadotropin

b.         Alpha-fetoprotein

c.         Prostate-specific antigen

d.         Luteinizing hormone

 

10.       Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leukorrhea during the reproductive years?

a.         It is clear or whitish

b.         It has a pH of 4 to 5

c.         It does not contain any cells

d.         It contains mucus

 

11.       Which of the following applies to the corpus luteum?

a.         It forms a mature ovarian follicle.

b.         It secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

c.         It secretes estrogen and progesterone during the latter half of the menstrual cycle.

d.         It produces gonadotropins for the next cycle.

 

12.       Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?

a.         Obstruction in the fallopian tubes

b.         Inflammation due to blood irritating the endometrial tissue

c.         Hormonal imbalance causing uterine contractions

d.         Fibrous tissue responding to hormonal changes

 

13.       With pelvic inflammatory disease, why does infection spread easily into the peritoneal cavity?

a.         The fallopian tubes are obstructed, and purulent exudate cannot drain into the uterus.

b.         The uterus is perforated because of infection, allowing bacteria to leak out.

c.         Most of the primary infections do not respond to antimicrobial drugs.

d.         Microbes are highly virulent.

 

14.       Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?

a.         Development of malignancy

b.         Irregular menstrual cycles

c.         Interference with ovulation

d.         Abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia

 

15.       Which of the following refers to fibrocystic breast disease?

a.         Progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissue

b.         Proliferation of atypical cells with high risk of malignancy

c.         Benign tumors that develop after menopause

d.         Any tissue changes other than the normal response to hormonal changes

 

16.       Which of the following applies to carcinoma of the breast?

a.         It presents as a tender, painful, firm nodule.

b.         Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane.

c.         Occasionally, a genetic factor may have a small role in tumor development.

d.         The tumor is invasive but does not metastasize until very late.

 

17.       Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?

a.         The invasive stage

b.         The stage of mild dysplasia

c.         The time before it can be detected by a Pap test

d.         Noninvasive severe dysplasia

 

18.       What is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer?

a.         High estrogen levels

b.         Familial incidence

c.         Infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV)

d.         Early age for onset of menstrual cycles

 

19.       What is a significant early sign of endometrial carcinoma?

a.         A positive Pap test

b.         Minor vaginal bleeding or spotting

c.         Infection resistant to treatment

d.         Painful intercourse

 

20.       Which sexually transmitted infection(s) is/are usually considered asymptomatic in women?

a.         Chlamydia

b.         Gonorrhea

c.         Syphilis

d.         All of the above

 

21.       Which of the following frequently causes pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and subsequent infertility?

a.         Chlamydia

b.         Genital warts

c.         Trichomoniasis

d.         Herpes simplex

 

22.       Which of the following causes inflammation of the vagina with a copious yellow discharge and foul odor?

a.         Candidiasis

b.         Trichomoniasis

c.         Syphilis

d.         Gonorrhea

 

23.       What is the cause of syphilis?

a.         A gram-negative diplococcus

b.         An anaerobic protozoa

c.         A virus

d.         An anaerobic spirochete

 

24.       Which of the following infections may be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during delivery?

a.         Gonorrhea

b.         Chlamydia

c.         Herpes simplex

d.         All of the above

 

25.       Which of the following STDs is considered to be a systemic infection?

a.         Gonorrhea

b.         Chlamydia

c.         Syphilis

d.         Condylomata acuminate

 

26.       Which of the following is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?

a.         N. gonorrhoeae

b.         Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c.         S. aureus

d.         E. coli

 

27.       The most common solid tumor found in young men is:

a.         Prostatic cancer

b.         Testicular cancer

c.         Bladder cancer

d.         Penile cancer

 

28.       A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of:

a.         Prostatic cancer

b.         Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

c.         Acute prostatitis

d.         Chronic prostatitis

 

29.       How do testicular tumors usually present?

 

a.         Soft, tender mass

b.         Multiple firm nodules

c.         Hard, painless unilateral mass

d.         Small, fluid-filled cyst

 

30.       Which term refers to bleeding between menstrual periods?

a.         Amenorrhea

b.         Dysmenorrhea

c.         Oligomenorrhea

d.         Metrorrhagia

 

31.       Which statement does NOT apply to vaginal candidiasis?

a.         It is classified as an STD

b.         The cause is an opportunistic yeast

c.         It causes dysuria and dyspareunia

d.         The mucosa becomes red and pruritic

 

32.       Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the:

a.         Lungs

b.         Bone

c.         Pelvic lymph nodes

d.         Brain

 

33.       When the uterus is located in the vagina with the cervix at the opening to the vagina, this is called:

a.         First-degree prolapse

b.         Second-degree prolapse

c.         Third-degree prolapse

d.         Procidentia

 

34.       Painful menstruation is called:

a.         Polymenorrhea

b.         Premenstrual syndrome

c.         Dysmenorrhea

d.         Endometriosis

 

35.       Vaginal candidiasis is frequently predisposed by:

a.         Systemic antibacterial therapy

b.         Insertion of an intrauterine device

c.         Sexual intercourse with an infected partner

d.         Previous viral infection

 

36.       A chancre is best described as:

a.         A vesicle surrounded by a red inflamed area

b.         A pustule filled with purulent exudate

c.         An area of necrosis and fibrosis

d.         A firm painless ulcerated nodule

 

37.       Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:

a.         Slow the growth of the primary tumor

b.         Destroy any micrometastases

c.         Prevent the removal of any lymph nodes

 

d.         Reduce the need for a mastectomy

 

38.       Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:

a.         It does not respond to chemotherapy or radiation.

b.         Vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis.

c.         Premenopausal women are not likely to notice changes.

d.         Hormone therapy is ineffective.

 

39.       Specific genetic links have been shown for:

a.         Cervical cancer

b.         Testicular cancer

c.         Breast cancer

d.         Prostatic cancer

 

40.       In which cancers has there been a recent significant increase in incidence?

a.         Uterine cancer

b.         Breast cancer

c.         Ovarian cancer

d.         Cervical cancer in situ

 

41.       Adenocarcinomas make up the most common cancers found in the:

a.         Prostate

b.         Testes

c.         Ovary

d.         Cervix

 

42.       Infertility in women may result from:

a.         Endometriosis

b.         Hormonal imbalances

c.         A and B

d.         Neither A nor B

 

43.       Viable sperm may not be able to access an ovum when:

a.         Cervical mucus is highly viscous

b.         Vaginal pH is abnormal

c.         Structural abnormalities are present

d.         All of the above

 

44.       Balanitis is the infection and inflammation of the:

a.         Vagina

b.         Glans penis

c.         Fallopian tubes

d.         Testes

 

45.       Structural abnormalities of the uterus may lead to dyspareunia, which is:

a.         Painful intercourse

b.         Obstructed urination

c.         A form of infertility

d.         Fungal infection of the uterus