Fill This Form To Receive Instant Help

Help in Homework
trustpilot ratings
google ratings


Homework answers / question archive / Chapter 29--Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression 1) Both prokaryotes and differentiated eukaryotic cells express ____ of their genes at any given time in the process called ____

Chapter 29--Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression 1) Both prokaryotes and differentiated eukaryotic cells express ____ of their genes at any given time in the process called ____

Biology

Chapter 29--Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
1)
 Both prokaryotes and differentiated eukaryotic cells express ____ of their genes at any given time in the process called ____. 
A. a small number; transcription
B. a small number; translation
C. a large number; transcription
D. all; translation
E. all; transcription

 

2. The stand of dsDNA that is read by RNA polymerase is termed the ____ strand with RNA polymerase moving ____ along it. The polymerase forms a ____, growing in the ____ direction. 
A. template; 5'®3'; transcript; 3'®5'
B. template; 3'®5'; transcript; 5'®3'
C. transcript; 3'®5'; template; 5'®3'
D. nontemplate; 5'®3'; template; 3'®5'
E. nontemplate; 3'®5'; template; 5'®3'

 

3. The ____ strand has the same nucleotide sequence and direction as that of the RNA transcript, with the ____ end of mRNA encoding the N-terminus of the protein. 
A. template; 3'
B. template; 5'
C. nontemplate; 3'
D. nontemplate; 5'
E. lagging; 5'

 

4. All are factors or subunits contained within the E. coli RNA polymerase holoenzyme in prokaryotic organisms EXCEPT: 
A. r (rho).
B. a (alpha).
C. b (beta).
D. b¢ (beta prime).
E. s (sigma).

 

5. The subunit in E. coli RNA polymerase which is required for recognition of the promoter sequence is: 
A. r (rho).
B. a (alpha).
C. b (beta).
D. b¢ (beta prime).
E. s (sigma).

 

6. Nucleotide sequences that identify the location of transcription start sites and regulate the level of transcription are called: 
A. sigma factors.
B. Pribnow boxes.
C. TATA boxes.
D. promoters.
E. enhancers.

 

7. All are stages in transcription EXCEPT: 
A. binding of RNA polymerase holoenzyme at the promoter sites.
B. chain elongation.
C. DNase I activity on RNA polymerase/DNA complex.
D. initiation of polymerization.
E. chain termination.

 

8. Treatment of the RNA polymerase/DNA complex with DNase in vitro is a DNA footprinting technique used to: 
A. identify the termination sequence for transcription.
B. locate the start site for transcription.
C. locate the promoter site.
D. identify the position of enhancer sequences.
E. none of the above.

 

9. The base in DNA that specifies the first base in the RNA transcript is called a(n) ____ and is numbered ____. 
A. promoter; -5
B. enhancer; -35
C. transcription start site; 0
D. transcription start site; +1
E. promoter complex; +5

 

10. Nucleotides in the "minus" direction are said to lie ____ the transcription start site. 
A. downstream of
B. upstream of
C. downstrand of
D. upstrand of
E. negative to

 

11. Within the ____ are two consensus sequence elements, the ____ near -10 with a sequence of TATAAT, and the ____ containing the consensus TTGACA. 
A. termination sequence; rho subunit; sigma sub
B. termination sequence; Pribnow box; sigma subunit unit
C. promoter sequence; rho subunit; Pribnow box
D. promoter sequence; Pribnow box; -35 region
E. promoter sequence; rho subunit; -35 region

 

12. All are true for the prokaryotic promoter for the rrn gene in E. coli EXCEPT that it: 
A. encodes for rRNA.
B. has a -10 region Pribnow box.
C. has a -35 region consensus sequence.
D. has an upstream (UP) element at -55.
E. all are true.

 

13. In order for transcription to begin, the DNA-duplex must be "opened" to allow RNA polymerase access to single stranded template. All facilitate "opening" of DNA-duplex EXCEPT: 
A. low melting temperature, Tm, in the Pribnow box.
B. A:T rich DNA duplex.
C. negative supercoiling.
D. binding of RNA polymerase s-subunit.
E. all are true.

 

14. The initiation site binds a ____ nucleotide base pairing with the ____ base exposed within the ____ promoter complex, and then the second base is added to the ____ of the first base. 
A. pyrimidine; -1; closed; 3'-O
B. pyrimidine; +1; closed; 5'-O
C. purine; +2; closed; 3'-O
D. purine; -1; open; 5'-O
E. purine; +1; open; 3'-O

 

15. Transcription chain elongation is thought to generate: 
A. positive supercoils behind the transcription bubble.
B. positive supercoils in front of the transcription bubble.
C. negative supercoils in front of the transcription bubble.
D. a relaxed DNA during the transcription process.
E. none of the above.

 

16. Intrinsic RNA chain termination is determined by specific sequences in the DNA called ____ sites. 
A. termination
B. rho binding
C. template binding
D. supercoil
E. all are true

 

17. One of the termination mechanisms in bacteria utilizes the ____ factor that is an ATP-dependent helicase. 
A. a (alpha)
B. b (beta)
C. g (gamma)
D. e (delta)
E. r (rho)

 

18. Characteristics of rho (r) factor include all EXCEPT that it: 
A. recognizes and binds C-rich regions of RNA transcripts.
B. binding regions must be ribosome free.
C. advances in the 5'®3' direction to the transcription bubble.
D. unwinds transcript and template to free nascent RNA.
E. all are true.

 

19. In bacteria, single polycistronic mRNA encodes for: 
A. a single enzyme although there are many in the metabolic pathway.
B. multiple enzymes of the particular pathway.
C. a single mRNA which is split into multiple mRNAs before translation.
D. a single peptide with multiple catabolic sites.
E. none of the above.

 

20. Operons are a(n) ____ sequence lying adjacent to the DNA being transcribed and are composed of a promoter located next to a(n) ____ that interacts and is controlled by a(n) ____ protein. 
A. initiation; operator; repression
B. operator; repressor; regulatory
C. regulatory; repressor; activator
D. regulatory; operator; regulatory
E. none are true

 

21. In prokaryotes, gene expression is often responsive to small molecules where increasing synthesis of enzymes for metabolism of a certain substrate is termed ____ and the substrate is called ____. Likewise metabolic products that decrease synthesis of enzymes for their production are called ____ and carry out ____. 
A. autoregulation; regulatory; co-repressors; initiation
B. co-induction; induction; co-repressors; initiation
C. induction; co-inducer; co-repressors; repression
D. induction; co-inducer; repressor; co-repression
E. all are true

 

22. Expression of genes independently of regulation is termed: 
A. negative regulation.
B. constitutive expression.
C. transcription expression.
D. repressible regulation.
E. autoregulation.

 

23. All are components of the lac operon EXCEPT: 
A. the structural genes for lacZ, lacY and lacA.
B. the operator and promoter sequences.
C. lacI gene.
D. promoter for the lacI gene.
E. all are correct.

 

24. All are lac repressor properties EXCEPT: 
A. tetrameric protein expressed constitutively.
B. binding site for DNA.
C. binding site for mRNA.
D. binding site for inducer.
E. blocks elongation so initiation is aborted.

 

25. Which of the following is true of the lac operon? 
A. it is negatively controlled via the lac repressor
B. it is positively controlled via CAP
C. lactose represses the lac operon
D. a and b are true
E. a and c are true

 

26. All are characteristics of catabolic activator protein (CAP) EXCEPT: 
A. ensures that the operons necessary for metabolism for alternate energy sources remains repressed until the supply of glucose is exhausted.
B. overrides the influence of any inducer that might be present.
C. cAMP enhances CAP's affinity for DNA.
D. N-terminal end binds cAMP and C-terminal end binds DNA.
E. all are true.

 

27. Repressible operons are expressed only in the ____ of their co-repressor and inducible operons are transcribed only in the ____ of ____ co-inducers. 
A. absence; presence; small molecule
B. presence; presence; small molecule
C. presence; absence; protein
D. absence; presence; protein
E. absence; absence; cAMP receptor protein

 

28. When the cellular level of tryptophan decreases in E. coli
A. tryptophan-bound Trp repressor associates with trp operator.
B. Trp aporepressor has lowered affinity for trp promoter allowing RNA. polymerase binding and transcription of the trp operon.
C. tryptophan binds trp inducer to promote positive control of trp promoter.
D. trp repressor has a greater affinity for trp operator.
E. none of the above.

 

29. All of the following are control mechanisms that regulate transcription in prokaryotes EXCEPT: 
A. protein : protein interactions
B. DNA : protein interactions
C. RNA : protein interactions
D. a and b
E. a, b, and c

 

30. All are true for transcription activation EXCEPT: 
A. takes place when a transcriptional activator protein bound to DNA makes protein : protein contacts with RNA polymerase.
B. the degree of transcriptional activation is proportional to the strength of the protein : protein interaction.
C. a nucleotide sequence binding site for a DNA-binding protein serves as an activator site if DNA-binding protein can interact with promoter-bound RNA polymerase.
D. if the DNA-bound transcriptional activator makes contact with two different components of RNA polymerase, the transcription is markedly elevated.
E. all are true.

 

31. RNA polymerase II: 
A. is located in the nucleolus and transcribes the major ribosomal RNA genes.
B. is located in the nucleoplasm and transcribes the protein-encoding genes through mRNAs.
C. transcribes the 5S RNA genes.
D. transcribes RNA genes associated with tRNA processing.
E. transcribes tRNA genes and protein transport genes.

 

32. Transcription in eukaryotic cells which is resistant to a-amanitin is carried out by RNA polymerase: 
A. I only.
B. II only.
C. III only.
D. I and III.
E. I, II and III.

 

33. The DNA-binding proteins that recognize and accurately initiate transcription at specific eukaryotic promoter sequences are called: 
A. Enhancers.
B. transcription factors.
C. response elements.
D. chromatin-remodeling complexes.
E. all are true.

 

34. Which of the following is true of TATA boxes? 
A. they are found within the core sequence of a gene regulatory sequence
B. they are found downstream of the gene being transcribed
C. they represent an area of DNA more easily opened than other areas
D. a and c are true
E. a, b, and c are true

 

35. The heptapeptide repeat in the carboxy terminal domain (CTD) in the RPB1 subunit of RNA polymerase II is phosphorylated to ____. 
A. convert to an elongation complex
B. bind to DNA
C. form a holo-RNA polymerase II
D. initiate transcription
E. activate termination

 

36. All may be RNA polymerase II promoter constituents EXCEPT: 
A. the core element where general transcription factors (GTFs) bind.
B. where enhancers bind transcriptional activators.
C. where silencers bind repressors.
D. a TATA box indicating the transcription start site.
E. all can be constituents.

 

37. All are correct about enhancer sequences in eukaryotic cells EXCEPT: 
A. they can occur either upstream or downstream of the gene.
B. they can be in either orientation (bi-directional).
C. enhancer function is dependent on recognition by a specific transcription factor.
D. specific transcription factor binding at an enhancer stimulates transcription by interacting with RNA polymerase II.
E. all are correct.

 

38. Heat shock element (HSE) is a(n) ____ found in the ____ region of genes whose transcription is activated in response to ____. 
A. silencer; enhancer; cold
B. response element; promoter; elevated temperature
C. promoter; enhancer; elevated temperature
D. enhancer; response element; elevated temperature
E. silencer; promoter; cold

 

39. The metallothionein gene promoter consists of all EXCEPT: 
A. TATA box.
B. GC box.
C. glucocorticoids response element (GRE).
D. heat shock element (HSE).
E. all are true.

 

40. The eukaryotic transcription factor that exhibits a sequence specificity for the TATA box is: 
A. TFIIB.
B. TFIIC.
C. TFIID/TBP.
D. RNA polymerase II.
E. TFIIH.

 

41. Enzymes that acetylate the e-amino group of lysine in the histidine tails are called ____ and are involved in ____. 
A. histone deacetylases; restoring chromatin to a repressed state
B. histone acetyltransferases (HATs); initial events in transcriptional activation
C. histone activases; formation of the de-repression complex
D. Schiff base formation; promoting the formation of closed complexes
E. none of the above

 

42. Huge multi-subunit entities that mediate ATP-dependent conformational changes that peel 50bp of DNA from the edge of nucleosome core particles and create a "bulge" in the DNA:core nucleosomes association are called: 
A. histone deacetylase complexes (HDACs).
B. DNA-bound transcriptional activators.
C. chromatin-remodeling complexes .
D. general transcriptional factors (GTFs).
E. all are true.

 

43. All are components of the basic rule of macromolecular recognition EXCEPT: 
A. protein recognizes nucleotide sequences by atomic contacts with bases and sugar-phosphate backbone usually in the major groove.
B. protein contacts involve H-bonds and salt bridges with electronegative oxygens of the phosphodiester linkages.
C. proteins present a three-dimensional shape or contour structurally and chemically complementary to the surface of the DNA sequence.
D. numerous atomic interactions underlie recognition and binding.
E. all are components.

 

44. The recurring structural feature in DNA-binding proteins is the presence of ____ segments that fit into the ____ grove of B-DNA. 
A. a-helix; major
B. b-sheet; major
C. b-turn; minor
D. b-barrel; minor
E. all are true

 

45. All are true for homeobox domains EXCEPT: 
A. typically comprise about 90% of the protein mass.
B. found in virtually every eukaryote.
C. act as sequence-specific transcriptional factors.
D. contain helix-turn-helix motifs.
E. all are true.

 

46. The base-pair edges in the ____ groove act as a(n) ____ identifiable through ____ with specific proteins. 
A. minor; enhancer; H-bonding
B. minor; recognition matrix; H-bonding
C. major; recognition matrix; H-bonding
D. major; repressor; ionic binding
E. major; transcriptional silencer; ionic bonding

 

47. Lac repressor is an example of the DNA-binding motif common to many prokaryotic regulatory proteins and is: 
A. a homeobox.
B. a zinc finger.
C. a basic region-leucine finger.
D. a helix-turn-helix.
E. none of the above.

 

48. Characteristics of the Zn-finger motif include all EXCEPT: 
A. repeated motif in DNA-binding proteins.
B. 2 Cys and 2 Met coordinate the Zn.
C. binds the major groove of DNA.
D. interacts with about five nucleotides/ Zn-finger.
E. all are true.

 

49. The leucine zipper is a protein motif held together by: 
A. H-bonds.
B. hydrophobic interactions.
C. ionic interactions.
D. metal ion binding.
E. protein:DNA interactions.

 

50. The structural motif found in a number of transcriptional factors which is not a DNA-binding domain, but rather is associated with protein-protein interactions is: 
A. a leucine zipper.
B. a zinc finger.
C. a helix-turn-helix.
D. an enhancer element.
E. all of the above.

 

51. All are true for translation in eukaryotic cells EXCEPT: 
A. transcription and translation are spatially separated.
B. mRNAs are monocistronic.
C. transcription occurs in the nucleus.
D. primary transcripts undergo processing to mature mRNAs.
E. all are true.

 

52. Transcription of a typical gene encoding a polypeptide in eukaryotes involves all of the following EXCEPT: 
A. the splicing together of a number of exons in the DNA prior to transcription.
B. synthesis by RNA polymerase II.
C. transcription of DNA corresponding to both introns and exons.
D. transcription of the DNA which encodes the N-terminal of the polypeptide prior to DNA encoding to the C-terminal.
E. addition of the poly(A)+ tail.

 

53. Most eukaryotic RNA consists of coding regions, called ____, and noncoding regions, called ____. 
A. introns; exons
B. exons; introns
C. spliceons; codons
D. codons; spliceons
E. introns; codons

 

54. The initial event in the conversion of an hnRNA to the mature RNA which leaves the nucleus is: 
A. formation of ribonucleoprotein particles (RNPs).
B. capping the 5'-end of the transcript with a guanylyl group by guanylyl transferase.
C. addition of a poly(A) tail to the 3'-end of the transcript by poly(A) polymerase.
D. splicing together of the exons.
E. transesterification reactions in lariat formation.

 

55. Characteristics of intron excision and exon ligation (splicing) include all EXCEPT that: 
A. it occurs exclusively in the nucleus.
B. it involves hnRNA in ribonucleoprotein particles.
C. hnRNA is capped and polyadenylated.
D. it relies on snRNPs.
E. all are characteristics.

 

56. Splicesomes include all of the following EXCEPT: 
A. snRNPs.
B. RNA-annealing proteins.
C. ATP-dependent RNA-unwinding proteins.
D. enzymes catalyzing transesterification of phosphoesters.
E. all are components.

 

57. Which is/are true of protein isoforms? 
A. they are related polypeptides
B. they have identical structure and function
C. they are the result of different transcripts of a single gene
D. a and c
E. a, b, and c

 

58. The production of multiple transcripts from a single gene includes all EXCEPT: 
A. constitutive splicing.
B. use of different promoters.
C. selection of different polyadenylation sites.
D. alternative splicing of the primary transcript.
E. all are true.

 

Option 1

Low Cost Option
Download this past answer in few clicks

7.83 USD

PURCHASE SOLUTION

Already member?


Option 2

Custom new solution created by our subject matter experts

GET A QUOTE

rated 5 stars

Purchased 7 times

Completion Status 100%

Sitejabber (5.0)

BBC (5.0)

Trustpilot (4.8)

Google (5.0)

Related Questions