Homework answers / question archive / Louisiana State University PSYC 4035 PSYCH 4035 QUIZZES EXAM 1 1)Which of the following might be considered a drug, based on the textbook’s definition? a

Louisiana State University PSYC 4035 PSYCH 4035 QUIZZES EXAM 1 1)Which of the following might be considered a drug, based on the textbook’s definition? a

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Louisiana State University

PSYC 4035

PSYCH 4035 QUIZZES EXAM 1

1)Which of the following might be considered a drug, based on the textbook’s definition?

a.            Food

b.            Vitamin

c.             Aspirin

d.            All of these answers could be considered a drug

2.            A Certain Safety Index is:

a.            a therapeutic index calculated from a low percentage TD value and a high percentage ED value.

b.            a therapeutic index calculated from a high percentage TD value and a high percentage ED value.

c.             a therapeutic index of 100 or greater.

d.            a therapeutic index of 10 or greater.

3.            Joakim consumed a cup of coffee in order to feel more alert. Which of following describes this type of drug use?

a.            Recreational use

b.            Drug misuse

c.             Drug abuse

d.            Instrumental use

4.            Which of the following describes a psychoactive drug?

a.            John feels better after rubbing an oral gel on his sore tooth.

b.            John feels less depressed after taking his antidepressant medication.

c.             John’s headache pain is gone after taking a pain-relieving drug.

d.            None of these answers describes a psychoactive drug.

 

5.                           drug use refers to using a drug entirely to experience its effects.

a.            Abusive

b.            Recreational

c.             Therapeutic

d.            Instrumental

 

 

6.            For the statement, acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an analgesic drug, what is the generic name?

a.            Analgesic

b.            Tylenol

c.             The generic name is not provided d. Acetaminophen

 

7.            If drug A has and ED50 of 1 mg/kg and drug B has an ED50 of 10 mg/kg for some therapeutic effect, which drug would taking a lower amount to achieve the therapeutic effect?

a.            Drug A

b.            Drug B

c.             They would require the same amount

d.            An answer cannot be determined from the information given

 

 

8.            Drugs A and B produce similar types of effects. Drug A has an ED50 value of 10 mg/kg and Drug B has an ED50 value of 5 mg/kg. What can be said about these drugs?

a.            Drug A will have a safer therapeutic index. b. Drug B is more potent than Drug A.

c. Drug B will have a safer therapeutic index.

d. Drug A is more potent than Drug B.

 

 

9.            Which of the following DOES NOT describe misuse of a therapeutic drug?

a.            Tyrone consumed cough syrup to enhance the effects of alcohol.

 

b.            Juanita consumed cough syrup to reduce her cold symptoms.

c.             Marie consumed cough syrup to cope with a stressful day at work.

d.            Ben consumed cough syrup to experience hallucinations.

 

 

10.          All of the following are characteristics of instrumental drug use except:

a.            voluntarily taking a drug. Incorrect

b.            taking a drug in order to feel high from the drug.

c.             taking a drug for a reason other than feeling the drug effects.

d.            taking a drug for a specific purpose.

 

 

11.A drug’s         name is a nonproprietary name for a drug that indicates the classification of a drug and distinguishes it from other drugs in the class.

a.            trade

b.            street

c.             chemical d. generic

 

12.          Drugs used to treat disorders are referred to as:

a.            recreational drugs.

b.            psychoactive drugs.

c.             pharmacotherapeutic drugs.

d.            alternative medicines.

 

 

13.          Which of the following would most likely be used for calculating a Certain Safety Index?

a.            TD99 and ED1

b.            TD50 and ED50

c.             TD99 and ED50 d. TD1 and ED99

 

 

14.          For the statement, acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an analgesic drug, what is the trade name?

a.            Acetaminophen

b.            Analgesic c. Tylenol

d. The trade name is not provided

 

 

15.          A drug with the dose-effect curves shown below would be considered safe

 

a.            True

b.            False

16.          Learning that a clinical trial examined the effects of a drug only in Cacausion males would serve as a threat to                validity.

a.            external

b.            face

c.             internal

d.            predictive

 

 

17.          Which of the following describe a pharmacokinetic action?

a.            A drug acts on the brain’s reward pathway to produce rewarding effects.

 

b.            A drug dissolves in water, but not in physiological saline.

c.             A drug acts in the hypothalamus to reduce hunger. d. A drug is exhaled through the breath

 

18.                                         validity refers to how well study findings generalize beyond the study conditions. a. External

b.            Face

c.             Construct

d.            Internal

 

 

19.          In a/an  an investigator does not alter the independent variable.

a.            single-blind procedure

b.            experimental study

c.             open-label study d. correlational study

 

20.          For a clinical study, researchers gave one group of participants a low dose of drug, another group a high dose of drug, and the final group placebo. How many treatment arms does this study have?

a.            3

b.            4

c.             2

d.            1

 

 

21.          Which of the following would be considered areas of pharmacology?

 

 

a.            Effects of opiate drugs on intracellular signaling pathways b. Effects of caffeine on heart rate

 

c. Effects of cocaine on pupil dilation

d. Effects of antidepressants on fetal development

 

 

22.          Objective effects are pharmacological effects that can be directly observed by others.

 

 

23.          Correlational and experimental studies vary in that in correlational studies, there is no manipulation of the independent variable

 

 

24.                         validity refers to the control of variables with potential to influence a dependent variable.

a.            Construct

b.            Confound

c.             External d. Internal

 

25.          Which of the following describe a pharmacodynamic action?

a.            A drug enters the liver and is quickly metabolized.

b.            A drug is injected in the arm and later enters the bloodstream. c. A drug binds to a neuron and alters the neuron’s activity.

d. A drug binds to another drug in the body.

 

 

26.          Subjective effects are pharmacological effects that cannot be directly observed by others.

 

 

27.          In an/an               an investigator alters the independent variable.

a.            single-blind procedure

b.            clinical study

c.             experimental study

d.            correlational study

 

 

28.          Discovering that study participants learned they were given a placebo would serve as a threat to                validity.

a.            internal

b.            face

c.             construct

d.            external

 

 

29.          In a double-blind procedure, neither the participants nor the investigators know the treatment assignments for the participants.

 

 

30.          Oligodendrocytes form:

a.            myelin around axons.

b.            synapses.

c.             spines along dendrites.

d.            the blood-brain barrier

 

 

31.                         play a role in forming the blood-brain barrier.

a.            oligodendrocytes b. astrocytes

c. microglia

d. neurons

 

 

32.          A researcher found that a drug increased heart rate. Which nervous system was the drug most likely acting upon?

a.            Extrapyramidal System

b.            Central Nervous System

c.             Somatic Nervous System

 

d.            Autonomic Nervous System

 

 

33.          Which cell causes endothelial cells to fit closely together? a. Astrocytes

b.            Oligodendrocytes

c.             Interneurons

d.            Microglial cells

 

 

34.          A toxin that destroyed the presynaptic terminal on an axon would likely: a. prevent a neuron from sending information to other neurons.

b.            change a neuron’s dendritic spine growth.

c.             cause damage to the postsynaptic terminal.

d.            prevent a neuron from receiving information from other neurons.

 

 

35.          The point where a motor neuron meets a muscle fiber is called the:

a.            dorsal horn

b.            end terminus.

c.             neuromuscular junction.

d.            ventral root.

 

 

36.          Which of the following are components of the synapse (click all that apply)?

a.            cell body

b.            axon terminal

c.             postsynaptic terminal

d.            axon

37.                                         are the types of cells that form myelin sheaths around axons. a. oligodendrocytes

 

b.            microglia

c.             astrocytes

d.            neurons

 

 

38.          Which of the following would NOT be an example of having an activated sympathetic nervous system?

a.            Inhibited salivation

b.            Pupil dilation

c.             Inhibited digestion d. Constricted airways

 

39.          A disease that destroyed astrocytes would be expected to:

a.            lead to foreign substances entering the brain from the circulatory system.

b.            prevent electrical impulses from traveling down axons.

c.             Neurotransmission from the neuron would increase.

d.            increase the density of dendritic spines.

 

 

40.          Which nervous system is responsible for delivering voluntary motor signals from the CNS to muscles throughout the body?

a.            Autonomic Nervous System

b.            Central Nervous System

c.             Extrapyramidal System d. Somatic Nervous System

 

41.          What effect might a disease that destroyed oligodendrocytes have on neuronal function?

a.            Neurons would be unable to form the blood-brain barrier.

b.            Mitochondria in a neuron would no longer function.

c.             Electrical impulses would be unable to travel down axons.

 

d.            Neurotransmission from the neuron would increase.

 

 

42.          All of the following describe functions for cerebrospinal fluid except:

a.            it provides a protective cushion for the brain.

b.            it provides a medium for nutrients to cells. c. it increases flow to highly active neurons.

d. it fills spaces in the brain.

 

 

43.          If a neuroscientist described a structure as more lateral to a particular area, this means that: Select one:

a.            the structure is further out to the side of the brain.

b.            the structure is anterior to the area.

c.             the structure is closer to the midline of the brain.

d.            the structure is below the area.

 

 

44.          Which of the following areas is involved in controlling emotional behaviors?

a.            pituitary system

b.            somatic system

c.             emotional regulation system d. limbic system

 

45.          Which of the following is not true about the cerebral cortex? Select one:

a.            The cerebral cortex includes the cerebellum.

b.            The cerebral cortex is located in the forebrain.

c.             The cerebral cortex has features called gyri and sulci.

d.            The cerebral cortex is found on the surface of the brain.

 

 

46.          Glial scars may impair recovery from brain injury because:

a.            they prevent axons from re-growing.

b.            oligodendrocytes fail to myelinate re-growing axons.

c.             regenerating axons may be unable to regain previous connections through the site of injury.

d.            interneurons make inhibitory connections with damaged neurons.

 

 

47.          If a drug severely depressed the functioning of the medulla, which of the following might be likely to occur?

a.            The person may have motor tremor. b. The person may stop breathing.

c. The person may have an increase in heart ratE.

d. The person may have constricted pupils.

 

 

48.          The hypothalamus controls the , which releases hormones into the bloodstream.

a.            pituitary gland

b.            corticotropic gland

c.             adrenal gland

d.            medulla

 

 

49.          Damage to the  could cause changes to ones motivation to eat, such as having a low appetite.

a.            pineal gland b. hypothalamus

c. hippocampus

d. medulla

 

50.          Which section of the forebrain has been implicated in controlling feelings of thirst and hunger?

a.            Hypothalamus

b.            Thalamus

c.             Cerebral cortex

d.            Basal ganglia

 

 

51.                         is the study of how genes support the function of neurons.

a.            Epigenetics

b.            Neurogenetics

c.             Somatics

d.            Functional genomics

 

 

52.          Discovering that someone has glial scars means suggests that:

a.            the person has a history of drug abusE.

b.            the person had neurons that did not form correctly during neural development. c. the person had a past traumatic brain injury.

d. the person has a disease that affects myelin around axons.

 

 

53.                         transmission is a series of events that begin at the axon hillock and travel down the length of an axon.

a.            Polarized

b.            Ionic

c.             Chemical d. Electrical

54.          Which of the following is an example of a concentration gradient?

a.            Ions increasing in concentration in a graded manner.

b.            Ions flowing through a barrier with selective permeability.

 

c.             Ions flowing from an area of high concentration to low concentration.

d.            Ions flowing from to an area with an opposite electrical charge.

 

 

55.          Channels that open or close depending on local potential changes are called:

a.            ligand-gated ion channels.

b.            depolarization   channels. c. voltage-gated ion channels.

d. sodium–potassium pumps.

 

 

56.          Potassium ions will exit a neuron during a resting potential through open channels due to: a. a concentration gradient.

b.            hyperpolarization.

c.             electrostatic attraction.

d.            sodium-potassium pump activity

 

 

57.          Saltatory conduction describes:

a.            the jumping of action potentials from one node to another.

b.            the taking of an electrical charge reading during an action potential.

c.             rapid change in potential occurring during an action potential.

d.            the influx of sodium.

 

 

58.          All of the following are ways that could hyperpolarize a local potential except:

a.            the charge inside the neurons becomes less negative.

b.            the neuron receives an inhibitory postsynaptic potential. c. the neuron receives an excitatory postsynaptic potential.

d. ions flowing through ion channels.

 

59.          All of the following help to maintain a neuron's resting potential except: a. sodium ions building up inside the neuron.

b.            closed channels for potassium.

c.             closed channels for sodium.

d.            sodium-potassium pump activity

 

 

60.          Ions flow through pores in a neurons membrane called:

a.            EPSPs.

b.            axon channels.

c.             local potentials. d. ion channels.

 

61.          Why do action potentials only travel down the axon and not the other direction?

a.            Action potentials do not cause depolarization.

b.            Resting potentials change with direction of the nerve impulse.

c.             An area where an action potential just occurred is still in a refractory period.

d.            Sodium–potassium pumps only act in one direction.

 

 

62.                         is a difference between the electrical charge within a neuron and the electrical charge outside a neuron.

a.            Electrical potential

b.            Electrical transmission

c.             Neurotransmission

d.            Ion channel activation

63.          An excitatory postsynaptic potential would be expected to cause: a. depolarization in a neuron.

b.            an increase in sodium-potassium pump activity

c.             neurotransmission to occur.

 

d.            hyperpolarization in a neuron.

 

 

64.          Why might the speed of electrical transmission be faster for a myelinated neuron compared to an unmyelinated neuron?

a.            Actions potentials have a greater magnitude.

b.            Myelin increases the concentration of ions within the neuron.

c.             Actions potentials need only occur at gaps between myelin sheaths.

d.            They are thicker, allowing for more actions potentials to occur.

 

 

65.          All of the following describe conditions that facilitate an action potential except:

a.            the local potential becomes depolarized.

b.            sodium channels open.

c.             a resting potential precedes an action potential. d. sodium–potassium pump activity decreases.

 

66.          What effect on a neuron would a drug that stops the sodium–potassium pump activity likely have?

 

a.            The neuron would become hyperpolarized due to a decreasing concentration of potassium ions

b.            The neuron would not be able to produce an action potential.

c.             The neuron's resting potential would be unaffected

d.            The neuron would become depolarized due to an increase in sodium ion concentration inside the neuron

 

 

67.          The difference between the electrical charge within a neuron and the electrical charge of the environment immediately outside the neuron is called a/an:

a.            hyperpolarization

b.            electrical transmission c. electrical potential

 

d. excitatory postsynaptic potential

 

 

68.          A series of action potentials occurring down the length of an axon are referred to as:

a.            firing rate.

b.            nodes of Ranvier.

c.             the all-or-none law.

d.            propagation of action potentials.

 

 

69.          A compound that blocked vesicular transporters would likely:

a.            prevent reuptake.

b.            prevent the storage of neurotransmitters in vesicles.

c.             cause a decrease in calcium influx.

d.            increase the activity of postsynaptic receptors.

 

 

70.          The most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain is:

a.            glutamate. b. GABA.

c. serotonin.

d. acetylcholine.

 

 

71.          After the activation of a G-protein, the sequence of signaling events consists of:

a.            second messenger, effector enzyme, protein kinase substrate protein. b. effector enzyme, second messenger, protein kinase, substrate protein.

c. effector enzyme, protein kinase, second messenger, substrate protein.

d. substrate protein, protein kinase, second messenger, effector enzyme.

 

 

72.          The most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain is:

 

a.            serotonin.

b.            acetylcholine.

c.             dopamine. d. glutamate.

 

73.          Which of the following all belong to the monoamine class of neurotransmitters? a. Dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin

b.            Serotonin, acetylcholine, and dopamine

c.             Acetylcholine, glutamate, and GABA

d.            Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and glutamate

 

 

74.          All of the following increase neurotransmitter concentrations in the synaptic cleft except: Select one:

a.            inhibiting catabolic enzymes.

b.            blocking membrane transporters.

c.             increasing calcium influx.

d.            blocking receptors on the postsynaptic terminal.

 

 

75.          A/An     is a presynaptic receptor that is activated by neurotransmitters different from those released from the axon terminal.

a.            heteroceptor

b.            postsynaptic receptor

c.             autoreceptor

d.            axon terminal receptor

 

 

76.          A compound that blocked vesicular transporters would likely:

a.            increase the activity of postsynaptic receptors.

b.            prevent reuptake.

 

c.             cause a decrease in calcium influx.

d.            prevent the storage of neurotransmitters in vesicles.

 

 

77.          All of the following will reduce neurotransmitter release except: a. blocking membrane transporters.

b.            disrupting neurotransmitter synthesis.

c.             increasing activity of catabolic enzymes inside the axon terminal.

d.            blocking calcium channels

 

 

78.          Exocytosis refers to:

a.            the breakdown of neurotransmitters by enzymes.

b.            the influx of calcium caused by depolarization from an action potential.

c.             the release of a neurotransmitter from a receptor back into the synaptic cleft. d. the way that stored neurotransmitters can be released into the synaptic cleft.

 

79.          All of the following are examples of why vesicular storage of neurotransmitters is important except:

 

a.            protects neurotransmitter from destruction by enzymes.

b.            provides mechanism for immediate release of neurotransmitters.

c.             prevents premature release of neurotransmitters.

d.            provides a protected area for neurotransmitter synthesis to occur.

 

 

80.          Proteins located in neuron membranes that can be bound to and activated by neurotransmitters are called:

a.            enzymes.

b.            vesicles. c. receptors.

d. membrane transporters.

 

 

81.                         is a progressive neurological disorder characterized by severe impairments in memory, decision-making, attention, motivation, language production and comprehension, and mood regulation

a.            Alzheimer's Disease

b.            Parkinson's Disease

c.             Huntington's Disease

d.            Epilepsy

 

 

82.          Hormones differ from neurotransmitters in the following ways except:

a.            Hormones can bind to intracellular sites.

b.            Hormones have widespread effects.

c.             Hormones can be delivered throughout the body via the circulatory system. d. Hormones are normally released into tight synaptic junctions.

 

83.          The types of acetylcholine receptors consist of: a. muscarinic and nicotinic.

b.            acetylcholinesterase and acetic acid.

c.             nicotinic and cholinergic.

d.            cholinergic and adrenergic.

 

 

84.          Which of the following are ways in which nitric oxide differs from other neurotransmitters? a. NO is not released in a calcium-dependent manner

b.            NO is stored in vesicles

c.             NO is not stored in vesicles

d.            NO is not synthesized in neurons

 

 

85.          Which of the following classes of drugs is a neuropeptide?

 

a.            amphetamines

b.            benzodiazepines

c.             cocaine d. opioids

 

86.          A drug that inhibited acetylcholinesterase would:

a.            increase levels of norepinephrine.

b.            prevent a decrease in levels of acetylcholine.

c.             reduce levels of dopamine.

d.            decrease activation of cholinergic receptors.

 

 

87.          The majority of types of adrenoceptors:

a.            are ionotropic receptors. b. produce excitatory effects.

c. produce inhibitory effects.

d. are found on dopamine neurons.

 

 

88.          A drug that inhibited choline transferase would be expected to:

a.            reduce the break down of acetylcholine into a metabolite.

b.            reduce the number of cholinergic receptors.

c.             increase levels of choline.

d.            reduce the synthesis of acetylcholine.

 

 

89.          Neurons that synthesize and release acetylcholine are referred to as:

a.            acetylcholinergic neurons. b. cholinergic neurons.

c. noradrenergic neurons.

 

d. pyramidal neurons.

 

 

90.          Neurotrophins bind to   .

a.            BDNF receptors

b.            ionotropic receptors

c.             noradrenergic receptors d. receptor tyrosine kinases

 

91.          A drug that blocked the norepinephrine transporter would be expected to: a. increase levels of norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft.

b.            prevent storage of norepinephrine in synaptic vesicles.

c.             reduce the synthesis of dopamine.

d.            increase the synthesis of norepinephrine.

 

 

92.          All of the following are examples of the function of neurotrophins except: a. Bind to G-protein coupled receptors.

b.            Have effects on neurons during development.

c.             Promote the plasticity of neurons.

d.            Promote survival of neurons.

 

 

93.          The effectiveness of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for temporarily treating the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease suggests that:

a.            adrenergic receptors are not functioning correctly.

b.            acetylcholinesterase is responsible for the cognitive disturbances found in Alzheimer’s disease.

c.             cholinergic neurotransmission is diminished in Alzheimer’s disease.

d.            damage to brain tissue has occurred from excitotoxicity.

 

94.          The following is true for dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine except:

a.            the absence of tyrosine hydroxylase prevent their synthesis.

b.            the receptors are metabotropic.

c.             part of the same synthesis pathway.

d.            they are amino acid neurotransmitters.

 

 

95.          Analyzing the amount of psychoactive drug in brain tissue would allow a researcher to determine:

a.            the drug's active transport through the blood-brain barrier

b.            the amount of biotransformation that took place. c. the drug's bioavailability

d. the drug's pKa

 

 

96.          The steps in pharmacokinetics normally occur in what sequence? Select one:

a.            Distribution, elimination, metabolism, absorption

b.            Elimination, distribution, metabolism, absorption

c.             Absoprtion, metabolism, elimination, distribution d. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination

97.                         in the blood would likely reduce the amount of drug available to act in target sites, such as the brain.

a.            Active transport mechanisms b. Nonspecific binding

c. Pathogens

d. Absorption

 

 

98.          The most important criteria below for a drug that may act in the brain is: a. crosses the blood-brain barrier.

 

b.            able to alter neurotransmission.

c.             administered orally.

d.            highly potent.

 

 

99.          In order to passively diffuse through the blood-brain barrier, a drug must:

a.            water soluble, uncharged, and relatively large.

b.            water soluble, charged, and relatively small. c. lipid soluble, uncharged, and relatively small.

d. lipid soluble, charged, and relatively small.

 

 

100.        The passage of a drug from the bloodstream to sites in the body is called:

a.            administration. b. distribution.

c. biotransformation

d. absorption.

 

 

101.                       refers to a drug’s strength of binding to a receptor.

 

 

a.            Receptor efficacy

b.            Agonism

c.             Antagonism

d.            Binding affinity

 

 

102.        A drug will more easily diffuse across cell membranes if its pKa is              the pH value of the local environment.

a.            half

b.            close to

c.             much smaller than

 

d.            much larger than

 

 

103.                       is the process of converting a drug into one or more metabolites.

a.            Nonspecific binding b. Biotransformation

c. Active transport

d. Distribution

 

 

104.        If a pharmacologist needed to develop a drug with a rapid absorption time, which of the following routes might she choose?

a.            Sublingual

b.            Intramuscular c. Inhalation

d. Oral

 

 

105.                                       is the process by which a drug leaves the body. a. Elimination

b.            Absorption

c.             Biotransformation

d.            Distribution

 

 

106.        Having a drug with a high receptor affinity suggests that:

a.            the drug will strongly block the receptor.

b.            the drug will strongly activate the receptor.

c.             the drug will large value for a dissociation constant.

d.            the drug will outcompete drugs with lower affinities for the receptor.

 

 

107.        Bioavailabilty reduced specifically for drugs orally administered may be due to:

 

a.            first-pass metabolism.

b.            Phase I biotransformation.

c.             Phase II biotransformation.

d.            nonspecific binding.

 

 

108.        A drug eliminated in half-lives follows: a. first-order kinetics.

b.            second-order kinetics.

c.             linear kinetics.

d.            zero-order kinetics.

 

 

109.        A/An     has some efficacy for activating receptors, but that efficacy is less than a full agonist.

a.            positive modulator

b.            competitive antagonist

c.             antagonist

d.            partial agonist

 

 

110.                       tolerance consists of a decreased behavioral responsiveness to a drug’s effects.

 

a.            Behavioral

b.            Dispositional

c.             Pharmacodynamic

d.            Pharmacokinetic

 

 

111.                       tolerance consists of a reduced responsiveness to a drug at the drug’s site of action.

a.            Pharmacokinetic

 

b.            Behavioral

c.             Conditioned

d.            Pharmacodynamic

 

 

112.        A/An     refers to a drug that activates a neurotransmitter receptor.

a.            positive modulator b. agonist

c. partial agonist

d. antagonist

 

 

113.                       are substances that damage or destroy parts of the nervous system.

a.            Negative modulators

b.            Protein kinases

c.             Antagonists d. Neurotoxins

 

114.        A pharmacologist developed a drug that acts a negative allosteric modulator. Which of the following describes the most likely outcome for the proposed drug?

a.            The drug will counteract the effects of an antagonist

b.            The drug will block neurotransmission

c.             The drug will weaken, but not prevent, the effects of the endogenous neurotransmitter

d.            The drug will strengthen the effects of the endogenous neurotransmitter

e.            The drug will prevent activation of G-proteins

 

 

115, Feeling depressed after time passes since taking a drug that producing rewarding effects would likely be an example of:

a.            sensitization.

 

b.            a psychological withdrawal symptom.

c.             behavioral tolerance.

d.            a physical withdrawal symptom.

 

 

116.        When an agonist binds to a G-protein coupled receptor: a. a G-protein becomes activated.

b.            no effects occur for a G-protein.

c.             neurotransmitters enter the neuron.

d.            a G-protein repels away neurotransmitters.

 

 

117.        The following are examples of tolerance except:

a.            a smoker found herself tapping her finger after smoking several cigarettes.

b.            a physician increased the dose of a drug because a patient became unaffected by the drug.

c.             a regular drinker realized that he needed to drink even more alcohol than he used to in order feel a buzz.

d.            an individual had to increase the amount of drug taken in order to still feel a drug high.

 

 

118.        A ternary receptor model suggests that:

a.            receptor efficacy only pertains to metabotropic receptors.

b.            a G-protein can prevent a ligand from binding to a receptor.

c.             only ligands with a high affinity for a receptor can activate a receptor.

d.            receptor actions depend on an interaction between a ligand, receptor, and G-protein.

 

 

119.        In the study by Siegel in the textbook,   tolerance likely occurred for the effects of heroin.

a.            behavioral b. conditioned

 

c. pharmacodynamic

d. adaptive

 

 

120.        A/An     refers to a drug that binds to, but fails to activate a neurotransmitter receptor.

a.            partial agonist

b.            agonist

c.             antagonist

d.            negative modulator

 

 

121.        The term “partial agonist” suggests that:

a.            behavioral or physiological responses will appear weaker than those produced by a full agonist.

b.            a G-protein will not be activated.

c.             the drug bound to some receptors but not others.

d.            the study compound is a mixture of agonists and antagonists.

 

 

122.        Finding that chronic administration of nicotine reduced the number of nicotinic receptors in the brain would be an example of:

a.            pharmacodynamic tolerance.

b.            conditioned tolerance.

c.             sensitization.

d.            pharmacokinetic tolerance.

 

 

123.        Feeling physically sick after time passes since taking a chronically used drug would likely be an example of:

a.            a physical withdrawal symptom.

b.            sensitization.

c.             a psychological withdrawal symptom.

 

d.            behavioral tolerance.

 

 

124.        The collection of symptoms expected from discontinuation of a particular drug after a period of regular use is referred to as:

a.            a withdrawal syndrome.

b.            dispositional tolerance.

c.             conditioned tolerance.

d.            dependence.

 

 

125.        A positive allosteric modulator:

a.            can activate receptors.

b.            facilitates the effects of a neurotransmitter at receptors.

c.             prevents neurotransmission.

d.            has a weak binding affinity for receptors.

 

 

126.        A/An     is a substance that binds to site on a receptor and causes a conformational change in the receptor, but neither activates nor prevents activation of the receptor.

a.            partial agonist

b.            antagonist

c.             agonist

d.            allosteric regulator

 

 

127.        Finding that someone who was dependent on the opioid heroin required high doses of opioid replacement drug methadone would serve as an example of:

a.            conditioned tolerance.

b.            behavioral tolerance. c. cross tolerance.

d. pharmacodynamic tolerance

 

 

128.        A             binds to the same site as a neurotransmitter, prevents a neurotransmitter from binding to the receptor, and fails to activate the receptor.

a.            competitive antagonist

b.            partial agonist

c.             negative modulator

d.            noncompetitive antagonist

 

 

129.                       tolerance can prevent a drug from reaching its site of action.

a.            Pharmacodynamic b. Pharmacokinetic

c. Conditioned

d. Behavioral

 

 

130.        Drug A has a Kd=100, Drug B has a Kd=10, Drug C has a Kd=5, and Drug D has a Kd = 1. Which drug has a greatest affinity for a receptor?

a.            Drug C b. Drug D

c. Drug B

d. Drug A

 

 

131.                       refers to an adaption that requires a user to take greater doses of a drug to achieve similar effects.

a.            Drug disposition

b.            Dependence

c.             Sensitization d. Tolerance

 

132.                       tolerance occurs as a physiological response to stimuli associated with substance use, serving to elicit actions that counteract a drug’s effects.

a.            Physical

b.            Conditioned

c.             Behavioral

d.            Pharmacokinetic