Our Lady of The Lake University-PATHO 2410 Nutrition/Elimination Sexuality Test Bank Chapter 17 1)Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid? a

Our Lady of The Lake University-PATHO 2410

Nutrition/Elimination Sexuality Test Bank

Chapter 17

1)Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid?

a.         Parietal cells

b.         Chief cells

c.         Mucous cells

d.         Gastrin cells

 

2.         Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?

a.         Stomach

b.         Duodenum

c.         Ileum

d.         Ascending colon

 

3.         When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?

a.         Gastrin

b.         Secretin

c.         Cholecystokinin

d.         Histamine

 

4.         Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?

a.         Amylase

b.         Peptidase

c.         Lactase

d.         Trypsin

 

5.         In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support the functions of the structure?

a.         Pancreas

b.         Liver

c.         Small intestine

d.         Spleen

 

6.         Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?

a.         Sympathetic nervous system

b.         Vagus nerve

c.         Increased saliva

d.         Absence of food in the system

 

7.         Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions?

a.         Bicarbonate ion

b.         Hydrochloric acid

c.         Activated digestive enzymes

d.         Insulin

 

8.         The presence of food in the intestine stimulates intestinal activity but inhibits gastric activity through the:

a.         Defecation reflex

b.         Enterogastric reflex

c.         Vomiting reflex

d.         Autodigestive reflex

 

9.         Which of the following processes is likely to occur in the body immediately after a meal?

a.         Lipolysis

b.         Ketogenesis

c.         Gluconeogenesis

d.         Glycogenesis

 

10.       What does the term gluconeogenesis refer to?

a.         Breakdown of glycogen to produce glucose

b.         Conversion of excess glucose into glycogen for storage

c.         Formation of glucose from protein and fat

d.         Breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and water

 

11.       Normally, proteins or amino acids are required to produce all of the following EXCEPT:

a.         Peptide hormones

b.         Clotting factors and antibodies

c.         Cellular energy

d.         Hemoglobin

 

12.       Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?

a.         The give feces the characteristic brown color

b.         They are enzymes used to break down fats into free fatty acids

c.         They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins

d.         They are excreted in the feces

 

13.       The visceral peritoneum:

a.         Lines the abdominal wall

b.         Hangs from the stomach over the lops of small intestine

c.         Contains many pain receptors

d.         Form the outer covering of the stomach

 

14.       The early stage of vomiting causes:

a.         Metabolic alkalosis

b.         Metabolic acidosis

c.         Increased respirations

d.         Increased excretion of hydrogen ions

 

15.       Yellow or greenish stained vomitus usually indicated the presence of:

a.         Bile

b.         Blood

c.         Protein

d.         Bacteria

 

16.       Small, hidden amounts of blood in stool are referred to as:

a.         Melena

b.         Occult blood

c.         Frank blood

d.         Hematemesis

 

17.       Severe vomiting can leas to metabolic acidosis because of increased:

a.         Ketones produces

b.         CO2 retained in the lungs and kidneys

c.         Hypovolemia and lactic acid production

d.         Metabolic rate

 

18.       Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?

a.         It requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII.

b.         It is entirely voluntary

c.         It is controlled by a center in the hypothalamus

d.         It does not affect respiration

 

19.       What does the defecation reflex require?

a.         Stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system

b.         Contraction of the internal anal sphincter

c.         Coordination through the sacral spinal cord

d.         Voluntary relaxation of pelvic muscles

 

20.       What is the definition of dysphagia?

a.         A herniation of the gastric mucosa through a segment of weakened muscle

b.         Recurrent reflux of chyme into the esophagus

c.         Absence of a connection of the esophagus to the stomach

d.         Difficulty swallowing

 

21.       What does congenital esophageal atresia cause?

a.         Direct passage of saliva and food from the mouth into the trachea

b.         Repeated reflux of gastric secretions into the esophagus

c.         No fluid or food entering the stomach

d.         Gastric distention and cramps

 

22.       Which of the following applies to cleft palate?

a.         The mandibular processes do not fuse

b.         The hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester of pregnancy

c.         Exposure to environmental factors in the last trimester causes the defect

d.         Speech and eating are not affected

 

23.       Oral candidiasis is considered to:

a.         Be a common bacterial infection in infants and young children

b.         Cause painful ulcerations in the mucosa and tongue

c.         Cause white patches in the mucosa that cannot be scraped off

d.         Be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth

 

24.       Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?

a.         Active infection is usually asymptomatic

b.         The virus builds up a resistance

c.         The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve genitalia

d.         The virus mutates; therefor, no effective immunity develops

 

25.       What does the term periodontitis refer to?

a.         Erosion of the enamel tooth surface

b.         Bacterial damage to the teeth and surrounding alveolar bone

c.         Inflammation and infection of the gingivae

d.         Formation of calcified plaque on the tooth

 

26.       What is/are common location(s) for oral cancer?

a.         Floor of the mouth or tongue borders

b.         Mucosa lining the cheeks

c.         Hard or soft palate

d.         Gingivae near the teeth

 

27.       What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?

a.         An abnormally long esophagus

b.         Increased intra-abdominal pressure

c.         Stenosis of the hiatus in the diaphragm

d.         A small fundus in the stomach

 

28.       What is a common sign of acute gastritis?

a.         Colicky right upper quadrant pain

b.         Vomiting and anorexia

c.         Projectile vomiting after eating

d.         Diarrhea with abdominal distention

 

29.       What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include?

a.         Atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions

b.         Hyperchlrhydria and chronic peptic ulcers

c.         Frequent vomiting and diarrhea

d.         Episodes of acute inflammation and edema of the mucosa

 

30.       What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella?

a.         Unrefrigerated custards or salad dressings

b.         Poorly canned foods

c.         Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs

d.         Contaminated water

 

31.       Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?

a.         A long-term, heavy cigarette smoker

b.         Patient with arthritis taking enteric-coated aspirin on a daily basis

c.         A person with an autoimmune reaction in the gastric mucosa

d.         An individual with an allergy to shellfish

 

32.       What does congenital pyloric stenosis involve?

a.         Absence of peristalsis in the lower section of the stomach

b.         Failure of an opening to develop between the stomach and duodenum

c.         Hypertrophy of smooth muscle in the pylorus

d.         Thickening of the gastric wall due to chronic inflammation

 

33.       A patient with acquired pyloric stenosis would likely:

a.         Have an increase in appetite

b.         Have chronic diarrhea

c.         Develop severe colicky pains

d.         Vomit undigested food from previous meals

 

34.       Prolonged or severe stress predisposes to peptic ulcer disease because:

a.         Of reduced blood flow to the gastric wall and mucous glands

b.         Of reduced bicarbonate content in bile and pancreatic secretions

c.         Stress increases the number of acid- and pepsinogen-secreting cells

d.         Increased epinephrine increases motility

 

35.       The pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease may involve any of the following EXCEPT:

a.         Decreased resistance of the mucosal barrier

b.         Increases stimulation of pepsin and acid secretions

c.         Infection by H. pylori

d.         Increases stimulation of mucus-producing glands

 

36.       Which of the following would a perforated gastric ulcer likely cause?

a.         Severe anemia

b.         Chemical peritonitis

c.         Severe gastric hemorrhage

d.         Pyloric obstruction

 

37.       What is frequently the first manifestation of stress ulcers?

a.         Abdominal discomfort between meals and at night

b.         Nausea and diarrhea

c.         Hematemesis

d.         Sharp colicky pain with food intake

 

38.       What would be the result of chronic bleeding from gastric carcinoma?

a.         Occult blood in the stool and anemia

b.         Hematemesis and shock

c.         Abdominal pain and distention

d.         Red blood on the surface of stool

 

39.       Following gastric resection, the onset of nausea, cramps, and dizziness immediately after meals indicates:

a.         A large volume of chyme has entered the intestines, causing distention

b.         Severe hypoglycemia has developed

c.         The pylorus is restricting the flow of chyme

d.         Bile and pancreatic secretions are irritating the small intestine

 

40.       Bilirubin is a product of:

a.         Hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs) and breakdown of hemoglobin

b.         Production of excess chyme and bile

c.         Mixing of undigested food and gastric secretions

d.         Accumulation of white blood cells (WBCs) due to infection

 

41.       Why does mild hyperbilirubinemia occur in newborns?

a.         Blood incompatibility between mother and chils

b.         Damage to many erythrocytes during the birth process

c.         Poor circulation and albumin transport for bilirubin

d.         Immature liver cannot process bilirubin quickly enough

 

42.       Predisposing factors to cholelithiasis include excessive:

a.         Bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the bile

b.         Water content in the bile

c.         Bile salts in the bile

d.         Bicarbonate ions in the bile

 

43.       What is the major effect when a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct?

a.         Intrahepatic jaundice

b.         Acute pancreatitis

c.         Severe colicky pain in upper right quadrant

d.         Inflammation an infection in the gallbladder

 

44.       Obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones is referred to as:

a.         Cholelithiasis

b.         Cholecystitis

c.         Cholangitis

d.         Choledocholithiasis

 

45.       Which of the following applies to hepatitis A infection?

a.         It is also called serum hepatits

b.         It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route

c.         It contains a double strand of DNA

d.         It frequently leads to chronic hepatitis

 

46.       What can be concluded if the hepatitis B antigen level remains high in the serum?

a.         Acute infection is present

b.         Chronic infection has developed

c.         Liver failure is in progress

d.         The usual prolonged recovery from and viral infection is occurring

 

47.       What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?

a.         HAV

b.         HBV

c.         HCV

d.         HEV

 

48.       During the course of a hepatitis B infection, the onset of jaundice occurs in the:

a.         Incubation period

b.         Preicteric stage

c.         Icteric stage

d.         Posticteric stage

 

49.       What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?

a.         Full recovery to normal tissue after the toxin material has been removed

b.         Acute onset of vomiting, steatorrhea, and jaundice

c.         Continued mild inflammation of the liver without permanent damage

d.         Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis

 

50.       What indicates the presence of third-stage alcohol hepatitis?

a.         Below normal blood levels of AST and ALT

b.         Upper left quadrant tenderness and dull pain

c.         A small, firm, nodular liver and portal hypertension

d.         Decreased production of blood clotting factors

 

51.       A factor that may precipitate encephalopathy with cirrhosis is the elevated:

a.         Serum urea

b.         Conjugated bilirubin

c.         Serum ammonia

d.         Serum pH

 

52.       In patients with cirrhosis, serum ammonia may increase when:

a.         Ingesting excessive lipids

b.         Bleeding occurs in the digestive tract

c.         An increase in unconjugated bilirubin occurs in the serum

d.         Less bile is produced

 

53.       What is the primary cause of esophageal varices?

a.         Increased hydrostatic pressure in the veins

b.         Alcohol irritating the mucosa

c.         Failure to inactivate estrogen

d.         Poor nutritional status

 

54.       What is the primary cause of increased bleeding tendencies associated with cirrhosis?

a.         Anemia and leucopenia

b.         Jaundice and pruritus

c.         Recurrent infections

d.         Deficit of vitamin K and prothrombin

 

55.       Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?

a.         Increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin

b.         Severe anemia and increases serum bilirubin

c.         Hypokalemia and increase ammonia

d.         Hyperproteinemia and persistent hypotension

 

56.       Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?

a.         Metastatic tumors

b.         Acute hepatitis

c.         Long-term exposure to certain chemicals

d.         Chronic cholelithiasis

 

57.       What causes massive inflammation and necrosis in acute pancreatitis?

a.         Formation of multiple thrombi an ischemia

b.         Infection by intestinal microbes

c.         Immune complex reaction

d.         Autodigestion of tissue by pancreatic enzymes

 

58.       How does chemical peritonitis and shock frequently result from acute pancreatitis?

a.         Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid balance

b.         Erosion in the intestinal wall causes release of bacteria

c.         Fat necrosis and hypocalcemia develop

d.         Secretions from the pancreas and intestine become more acidic

 

59.       Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:

a.         Damage to the intestinal villi

b.         Obstrution in the pancreatic ducts

c.         Acidosis, preventing activation of digestive enzymes

d.         Insufficient bile for absorption

 

60.       Which of the following best describes steatorrhea?

a.         A light gray-colored stool

b.         A tarry black stool

c.         Bulky, fatty, foul-smelling stools

d.         Watery stools with mucus and blood

 

61.       What is the dietary requirement for a child with celiac disease?

a.         Low sodium, high fat

b.         High carbohydrate, low protein

c.         High calorie with vitamin supplements

d.         Gluten-free

 

62.       What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn’s disease?

a.         Degeneration and flattening of the villi in the small intestine

b.         Multiple herniations of the mucosa through weak areas of the muscularis

c.         A continuous area of mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon

d.         Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas

 

63.       Stools that are more liquid and contain mucus and frank blood are typical of:

a.         Diverticulitis

b.         Ulcerative colitis

c.         Chron’s disease

d.         Celiac disease

 

64.       How may a fistula form with Crohn’s disease?

a.         Lack of peristalsis, leading to dilated areas of intestine

b.         Fibrosis and thickening of the wall, causing obstruction

c.         Erosion of the mucosa, causing bleeding

d.         Recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis, forming a connection between intestinal loops

 

65.       How does iron deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?

a.         Loss of surface area for absorption in the ileum

b.         Bone marrow depression by toxic wastes

c.         Chronic blood loss in stools

d.         Insufficient hydrochloric acid for iron absoption

 

66.       What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?

a.         Physical and emotional stress

b.         An autoimmune reaction

c.         A combination of recessive genes

d.         Idiopathic

 

67.       What pain is typical of diverticulitis?

a.         Lower left quadrant

b.         Lower right quadrant

c.         Sharp, colicky, periumbilical

d.         Lower abdominal pain, radiating into the groin

 

68.       What usually initiates acute appendicitis?

a.         Infection in the appendix

b.         An episode of severe diarrhea

c.         Obstruction of the lumen of the appendix

d.         Eating a low-fiber diet

 

69.       With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:

a.         Increased peristalsis in the adjacent colon

b.         Inflammation and stretching of the appendiceal wall

c.         Increased gas and fluid inside the appendix

d.         Local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum

 

70.       How does localized peritonitis develop from acute appendicitis before rupture?

a.         The omentum walls off the inflamed area

b.         Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal wall

c.         The obstructing object inside the appendix causes edema

d.         Bacteria escape into the circulating blood

 

71.       What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?

a.         Change in shape of the stool

b.         Incomplete emptying

c.         Mild but persistent pain in the lower left quadrant

d.         Occult blood in the stool

 

72.       To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?

a.         Lungs

b.         Stomach

c.         Liver

d.         Spleen

 

73.       How does a volvulus cause localized gangrene in the intestine?

a.         Hypotension and shock cause ischemia

b.         The mesenteric arteries are compressed in the twisted section of intestine

c.         A section of the intestine herniates between the muscles of the abdominal wall

d.         The distention of the intestinal wall causes increased permeability of the tissue

 

74.       Which of the following is a typical indicator of an intestinal obstruction caused by paralytic ileus?

a.         Excessive audible bowel sounds

b.         Intermittent colicky pain

c.         Severe steady abdominal pain

d.         Visible peristalsis

 

75.       A congenital condition in which parasympathetic innervation is missing from a section of the colon, impairing motility is referred to as:

a.         Diverticulitis

b.         Chron’s disease

c.         Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

d.         Hirschsprung’s disease

 

76.       What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?

a.         Continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine

b.         Hemorrhage into the intestine

c.         Rupture of the intestinal wall

d.         Repeated bouts of severe diarrhea

 

77.       What causes the characteristic rigid abdomen found in the patient with peritonitis?

a.         Increased fluid and gas, causing abdominal distention

b.         Inflammation of the peritoneum and organs, causing a firm mass in the abdomen

c.         Inflamed peritoneum, resulting in reflex abdominal muscle spasm

d.         Voluntary contraction of the abdominal muscles as a protective mechanism

 

78.       What would be the likely outcome from chemical peritonitis related to a perforated gallbladder?

a.         Leakage of intestinal bacteria into blood and the peritoneal cavity

b.         Massive hemorrhage and shock

c.         Breakdown of the gallstones

d.         Increasing peristalsis with intermittent painful spasms

 

79.       How does pelvic inflammatory disease frequently lead to bacterial peritonitis?

a.         Chemical irritation by excessive ovarian and uterine secretions causes inflammation

b.         Ulceration and perforation of the uterus allow the bacteria to spread

c.         Infection spreads through the fallopian tubes directly into the peritoneal cavity

d.         Gangrene in the uterine wall spreads through into the pelvic cavity

 

80.       Choose the significant change in arterial blood gases expected with prolonged severe vomiting:

a.         Increased bicarbonate ion, increased PCO2, serum pH 7.4

b.         Decreased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH 7.35

c.         Increased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH 7.35

d.         Decreased bicarbonate ion, increased PCO2, serum pH 7.45

 

81.       When dehydration reduces the compensation possible for acidosis resulting from prolonged diarrhea, what significant change in arterial blood gases indicates this?

a.         Serum pH would rise above 7.45

b.         Serum bicarbonate levels would increase, and serum pH would remain in normal range

c.         Serum bicarbonate levels would decrease, and serum pH would drop below 7.35

d.         Serum PCO2 would rise, and serum pH would be around 7.4

 

82.       Bile pigment gallstones are more common in individuals dealing with:

a.         Obesity

b.         High cholesterol levels

c.         Alcoholic cirrhosis

d.         Use of oral contraceptives

 

83.       Dehydration limits compensation available for an acid-base imbalance resulting from prolonged vomiting and diarrhea because:

a.         Hypovolemia limits renal function

b.         Increased respirations cannot remove more H+

c.         Increased ADH blocks secretion of H+

d.         More sodium and potassium ions are retained

 

84.       Which of the following is the most frequent location of peptic ulcers?

a.         Lower esophagus

b.         Antrum of the stomach

c.         Proximal duodenum

d.         Distal duodenum

 

85.       In peptic ulcer disease, which of the following does NOT decrease the resistance of the mucosal barrier?

a.         Prolonged vasoconstriction

b.         Excessive glucocorticoid intake

c.         Proteases and cytotoxins from H. pylori

d.         Decreased vagal stimulation

 

86.       An individual with peptic ulcer disease exhibits hematemesis. What does this probably indicate?

a.         Perforation

b.         Obstruction

c.         Erosion of a large blood vessel

d.         Development of malignancy

 

87.       What does the term melena mean?

a.         Blood in dark-colored stool

b.         Occult blood in the stool

c.         Blood in the sputum

d.         Blood in vomitus

 

88.       Which of the following is NOT a common predisposing factor to gastric carcinoma?

a.         Ingestion of smoked foods

b.         Genetic factors

c.         Ingestion of foods preserved with nitrates

d.         Anti-inflammatory medications such as ASA

 

89.       Which of the following frequently occurs 2 to 3 hours after meals in post-gastrectomy patients?

a.         Hypoglycemia

b.         Hypovolemia

c.         Abdominal cramps and distention

d.         Increased peristalsis and diarrhea

 

90.       Which term refers to an inflammation usually related to infection of the bile ducts?

a.         Cholelithiasis

b.         Cholecystitis

c.         Cholangitis

d.         Choledocholithiasis

 

91.       Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?

a.         Hepatomegaly

b.         Elevated serum liver enzymes

c.         Esophageal varices

d.         Lighter-colored stools

 

92.       Which of the following statement(s) about jaundice is/are true?

a.         It is often the first manifestation of hepatitis.

b.         Jaundice indicates permanent liver damage.

c.         Individuals with hepatitis are always jaundiced.

d.         Jaundice usually develops with hepatocellular carcinoma.

 

93.       Which type(s) of hepatitis increase(s) the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?

a.         HBV

b.         HCV

c.         HBV and HCV

d.         Neither HBV or HCV

 

94.       Which of the following is/are related to post-hepatic jaundice?

a.         Pruritic skin and light-colored stools

b.         Dark-colored stools and urine

c.         Increased serum levels of unconjugated bilirubin

d.         Loss of all metabolic functions

 

95.       Which of the following occurs with hepatitis B?

a.         The liver is inflamed and enlarged

b.         Blood clotting delays are apparent at onset

c.         Hepatocytes cannot regenerate when the virus is present

d.         Infection is self-limiting

 

96.       Identify a major reason making it difficult to prevent the spread of hepatitis B.

a.         A vaccine is not available

b.         The incubation period is too short to tract contents

c.         Infection is often asympomatic

d.         Antibodies are not produced

 

97.       What is the initial pathological change in alcoholic liver disease?

a.         Formation of nodules with shrinkage of the liver

b.         Inflammation with necrosis

c.         Development of fibrous bands of tissue

d.         Accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with hepatomegaly

 

98.       How does serum bilirubin change with cirrhosis?

a.         Increased unconjugated bilirubin

b.         Increased conjugated bilirubin

c.         Increased conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin

d.         Decreased conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin

 

99.       Which type of hepatitis virus requires the presence of hepatitis B virus so as to replicate?

a.         HAV

b.         HCV

c.         HDV

d.         HEV

 

100.     At what stage of alcoholic liver disease can the damage be reversed?

a.         It can never be reversed

b.         Initial stage

c.         Alcoholic hepatitis stage

d.         End-stage cirrhosis

 

101.     Although many factors may precipitate pancreatitis, the two major causes are:

a.         Obesity and smoking

b.         High-fat diet and hypertension

c.         Congenital defects and drug abuse

d.         Gallstones and alcohol abuse

 

102.     Which factor(s) appear(s) to have a role in the etiology of inflammatory bowel diseases?

a.         Dietary factors

b.         Environmental toxins

c.         Genetic and immunological factors

d.         Chronic alcoholism

 

103.     Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves:

a.         Periodic flow of gastric contents into the esophagus

b.         Constant flow o intestinal and gastric contents into the esophagus

c.         Spasmodic and violent vomiting of gastric contents

d.         Violent spasming of the esophagus, causing choking

 

104.     When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, this is called a:

a.         Dysphagia

b.         Rolling hernia

c.         Sliding hernia

d.         Pyloric hernia

 

105.     Which of the following applies to gastric cancer?

a.         It usually appears as polyp or protruding mass

b.         Most cases involve an adenocarcinoma of the mucous glands

c.         Genetics or geographical area does not affect the incidence

d.         It is usually diagnosed in an early stage because of pyloric obstruction

 

106.     Pancreatic cancer may be diagnosed early if obstruction of bile or pancreatic secretions develops when the tumor is located:

a.         At the head of the pancreas

b.         In the body of the pancreas

c.         In the tail of the pancreas

d.         In the endocrine glands of the pancreas

 

107.     “A gluten-free diet as required” for the client with celiac disease means avoiding:

a.         Products containing lactose

b.         Any trans-fat

c.         Certain grains

d.         Proteins containing certain amino acids

 

108.     The telescoping of one section of bowel inside another section is called:

a.         Volvulus

b.         Hernia

c.         Adhesion

d.         Intussusceptions

 

109.     A viral infection of the parotid gland is commonly known as:

a.         Tonsillitis

b.         Mumps

c.         Chickenpox

d.         Scarlet fever