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Houston Community College - PHARM 1301 NURSING PHARMACOLOGY 1)The following are appropriate nursing interventions for patients requiring vitamin and mineral replacement except: administer vitamins with food to promote absorption store drug in light-resistant container instruct client to take prescribed amount of drug administer >6000 units of Vitamin A to pregnant patients Effectiveness of health teaching and drug therapy is associated with which of the following phases of the nursing process: implementation planning assessment evaluation The nurse instructs a primigravid client to have at least 2 daily servings of enriched cereals
Houston Community College - PHARM 1301
NURSING PHARMACOLOGY
1)The following are appropriate nursing interventions for patients requiring vitamin and mineral replacement except:
-
- administer vitamins with food to promote absorption
- store drug in light-resistant container
- instruct client to take prescribed amount of drug
- administer >6000 units of Vitamin A to pregnant patients
- Effectiveness of health teaching and drug therapy is associated with which of the following phases of the nursing process:
- implementation
- planning
- assessment
- evaluation
- The nurse instructs a primigravid client to have at least 2 daily servings of enriched cereals. This increases daily intake of which of the following vitamins/minerals:
- riboflavin
- vitamin C
- vitamin D
- thiamine
- B.P. was prescribed iron supplements. 2 days later, he complained of severe epigastric distress. Your expected response is:
- take antacids after taking iron supplements
- should be taken with meals
- change to another brand of iron available in the market
- decrease the dose to minimize the side effects
- A client was started on potassium replacement. Which of the following statements is correct:
- advise patients to include fresh fruits and juices in the diet when taking thiazide diuretics
- hyperkalemia may induce digitalis toxicity
- avoid taking ACE inhibitors for treatment of hypertension
- not safe for pregnant patients
- During which step of the nursing process would the nurse identify client perceptions and expectations of the drug’s effectiveness:
- planning
- assessment
- evaluation
- implementation
- A. M., 19 year old consulted because of a sexually transmitted disease. Which of the following treatments would the nurse need to keep in mind?
- acyclovir (Zovirax) can be used to cure herpes genitalis.
- chlamydia trachomatis infections are usually treated with penicillin.
- eftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) may be used to treat Neisseria gonorrhea infections.
- metronidazole (Flagyl) is used to treat condyloma acuminata.
- When administering an antiviral agent which of the following is not included as part of the therapeutic interventions:
- should be taken in full course
- advise to drink medication in an empty stomach
- monitor for renal toxicity
- use gloves with topical agents
- Priority nursing diagnosis in patients on antiviral therapy:
- risk for infection
- volume overload
- inadequate circulating volume
- change in body image
- The nurse practices the “10 rights” of drug administration to ensure which of the following:
- correct mixing of the drug
- safe drug administration
- time saving
- gaining knowledge about the drug
- A health care provider has been exposed to hepatitis B through a needlestick. Which of the following drugs would the nurse anticipate administering as postexposure prophylaxis:
- hepatitis B immune globulin
- interferon
- hepatitis B surface antigen
- amphotericin B
- The following are important nursing interventions in the care of a client on antiviral therapy except:
- encourage to increase fluid intake
- provide good oral hygiene
- monitor vital signs
- frequent monitoring of CD4 levels
- P.P., 30 year old male, will undergo a kidney transplant operation. You anticipate that he will be on immune suppressants to minimize the possibility of rejection. This group of drugs acts by:
- stimulating thymus secretion thereby decreasing tissue rejection
- blocks the inflammatory reaction and initial damage to the transplanted cells
- stimulates interleukin release and preventing initial damage to transplanted cells
- increases body resistance by activating antibody production
- The following are cell-cycle specific chemotherapeutic agents except:
- vincristine
- taxanes
- topoisomerase inhibitors
- methotrexate
- In your assessment, a client tells you he or she has had a reaction to a medication. Your next nursing intervention is to:
- let the physician know that the client cannot receive the medication
- ask the client the type of reaction experienced
- reassure the client that the reaction will not occur again
- note the comment in the client’s chart and give the medication
- A.L., was told by her physician that she will be receiving a “cell-cycle specific” chemotherapeutic agent. You were asked to explain the term. Appropriate response is:
- the agent will act on well developed cells
- the agent will act on cells that are no longer active
- the agent will act on cells that have entered the resting phase and are not growing
- the agent will act on cells that are actively getting ready to divide or are dividing
- The nurse determines that a client on phenytoin is admitted to the emergency room with a level of 30mcg/ml. The nurse would evaluate for which one of the following severe side effects:
- gingival hyperplasia
- abdominal distention
- abdominal cramps
- hypertension
- Which of the following is the most important nursing intervention to ensure adequate nutrition in a client receiving a chemotherapeutic agent:
- provide small frequent feedings
- add vitamin and mineral supplements
- prevent stomatitis
- provide food that the client wishes
- Which of the following is the initial step the nurse undertakes prior to chemotherapy administration:
- secure informed consent
- gloving and gowning demonstration to the family
- clarify information and dispel misconceptions
- choosing appropriate access
- Nursing interventions for a client taking furosemide includes the following except:
- monitor urine output
- instruct client to take furosemide at bedtime
- instruct the client to rise slowly
- check serum potassium levels especially if taking digoxin
- A client on chemotherapeutic agent has the following hemogram: Hgb=6, Hct=.35, wbc=3/mm, plt=10,000. The following are important nursing diagnosis except:
- risk for infection
- oxygenation
- volume depletion
- risk for bleeding
- After applying a topical ointment, the client begins to feel a burning sensation on his hand and noted erythema over the area. This is an example of:
- systemic drug effect
- idiosyncratic effect
- synergistic effect
- local drug effect
- After taking a non-opioid analgesic, the patient suddenly developed periorbital edema, urticaria and wheezing. Which of the following best describes this situation:
- side effect
- idiosyncratic reaction
- anaphylactic reaction
- cumulative effect
- Patients with cirrhosis entails careful drug prescription for which of the following reasons:
- toxicity may occur as a result of excess bound drug
- reduction in drug effect
- excess free drug may result in toxicity
- drug elimination
- The half life (t ½) of a drug is the basis of its:
- dosing interval
- onset of action
- mechanism of action
- route of administration
- Schedule IV drugs are characterized by the following except:
- with acceptable medical use
- ex. is glutethimide
- low psychologic or physical dependence
- low abuse potential
- J.J. has liver and kidney disease. He is given a medication with a half-life of 30 hours. You expect the duration of action this medication to:
- increase
- decrease
- unchanged
- dissipate
- The ff: medications causes a reduction in blood pressure except:
- adrenergic blockers
- cholinergic agonists
- adrenergic agonists
- sympatholytics
- Baby Girl Katie 5mos. of age diagnosed to have pneumonia will be started on intravenous antibiotic. Which among the following factors affects drug therapy:
- absorption
- gastric acidity
- peripheral perfusion
- mucosal surface area
- A patient came in experiencing angina. She told you that she had similar episodes a month ago and was prescribed a pill placed under the tongue. She asked you if she could still use it. Your appropriate response will be:
- “Get a new prescription.”
- “A burning sensation felt after placing the pill sublingually means that the drug is still potent.”
- “Better look at the back of the container and try to check its expiration date.”
- “Most probably.”
- Which of the following is not an important factor to consider while on anticoagulation with heparin:
- apply direct pressure over the puncture site after blood extraction
- advise to use soft bristled toothbrushes
- maintain aPTT >4x the control value
- make protamine sulfate always available
- 65yo male, with chronic heart failure and atrial fibrillation, on daily loop diuretics came in with nausea, vomiting and bradychardia. Drug of choice to reverse the present condition:
- acetylcisteine
- vitamin K
- protamine sulfate
- Digibind (Fab)
- Which among the following diuretics should not be given to a hypertensive patient with hyperparathyroidism:
- osmotic diuretics
- thiazides
- loop diuretics
- K-sparring diuretics
- D.S., developed severe muscle weakness 2 weeks after he was prescribed an agent for his elevated cholesterol and triglycerides. You understand that this is a side effect of:
- fenofibrates
- nicotinic acids
- bile acid sequestrants
- statins
- M.S., a bus driver with allergic rhinitis was started on antihistamines. Which of the following statements need further clarification regarding his medication:
- ”It’s important to have good oral hygiene.”
- “I”ll take my medications before going to work.”
- “I need to increase my fluid intake.”
- “It’s bad for me to take my medicines with alcohol.”
- Which of the following dietary restrictions is indicated with carbamazepine:
- limit food rich in vitamin K
- restrict acid-ash foods
- maintain a high fiber diet
- do not drink grapefruit juice
- A.J. has been taking budesonide turbohaler twice a day. He tells the nurse that he has painful, white patches in his mouth. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate:
- “This is an anticipated side effect of your medication. It should go away in a couple of weeks.”
- “You are using your inhaler too much and it has irritated your mouth.”
- “You have developed a fungal infection from your medication. It will need to be treated with an antifungal agent.”
- “Be sure to brush your teeth and floss daily. Good oral hygiene will treat this problem.”
- A patient was prescribed a beta-agonists inhaler 2 puffs every 4 hours. The nurse instructs The client to report side effects. Which of the following is a potential side effect:
- oral thrush
- palpitations
- headache
- nausea and vomiting
- A client with cirrhosis was started on oral neomycin. The nurse understands that the purpose of this therapy is to:
- reduce abdominal pressure
- reduce bleeding with the intestine
- block ammonia formation
- treat intestinal infection
- K.C. was given aluminum hydroxide suspension because of gastritis. You inform her to notify you of what side effect of the drug:
- diarrhea
- constipation
- nausea and vomiting
- bland taste
- Vasopressin is administered to a client with diabetes insipidus because:
- decreases blood pressure.
- increases tubular reabsorption of water.
- increase release of insulin from the pancreas.
- decrease glucose production within the liver.
- 65yo developed SIADH after brain surgery. He was started on desmopressin acetate. The following are important parameters the nurse should monitor except:
- input and output
- blood pressure
- urine osmolality
- weight loss
- After treatment with RAI the nurse teaches the client to:
- monitor for signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
- rest for 1 week to prevent complications of the medication.
- take thyroxine replacement for the remainder of the clients life.
- assess for hypertension and tachycardia resulting from altered thyroid activity.
- A patient with hypoparathyroidism was started on calcium carbonate tablets. Which of the following is not an appropriate nursing intervention:
- instruct client to increase fluid intake
- should be taken with meals
- watch out for signs of hypercalcemia
- include cereals in the diet
- 65yo, postmenopausal was started on fluoride alendronate (fosamax). The following are important instructions given to this patient while on medication except:
- should be taken on an empty stomach
- remain upright after taking the medication
- do not eat or drink for 30min after administration
- may be taken with juice
- Most important nursing responsibility when administering D50W in a patient who developed hypoglycemia:
- monitor respiratory rate
- watch out for signs of ketoacidosis
- check for patency of IV line
- get CBG immediately after
- A nurse is assessing the client’s use of medications. Which of the following medications may cause a complication with the treatment plan of a client with DM:
- aspirin
- ACE inhibitors
- Steroids
- Sulfonylureas
- The client with type I DM is taught to take NPH insulin at 5pm each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk for hypoglycemia occur at about what time:
- 11am shortly before lunch
- 1pm shortly after lunch
- 6pm shortly after dinner
- 1am while sleeping
- Which statement should the nurse make when teaching the client about oral glucocorticoids:
- “Take your medication with a full glass of water.”
- “Take your medication on an empty stomach.”
- “Take your medication at bedtime to increase absorption.”
- “Take your medication with meals or with an antacid.”
- A client undergoing a bilateral adrenalectomy has postoperative orders for hydromorphone hydrochloride 2mg to be given subcutaneously every 4 hours PRN for pain. This drug is administered in relatively small doses primarily because it is:
- less likely to cause dependency in small doses
- less irritating to subcutaneous tissues in small doses
- as potent as most other analgesics in larger doses
- excreted before accumulating in toxic amounts in the body
- Adrenal function is affected by the drug ketoconazole. How is this effect manifested:
- ketoconazole suppresses adrenal steroid secretion
- ketoconazole destroys adrenocortical cells resulting in a “medical adrenalectomy”
- ketoconazole increases ACTH-induced corticosteroid serum levels
- ketoconazole decreases duration of adrenal suppression when administered with corticosteroids
- When preparing to teach a client about phenytoin sodium therapy, the nurse would urge the client not to stop the drug suddenly because:
- physical dependency on the drug develops over time
- status epilepticus may develop
- a hypoglycemic reaction develops
- heart block is likely to develop
- A client is being switched from levodopa to carbidopa-levodopa. The nurse should monitor for which of the following possible complications during medication changes and dosage adjustment:
- euphoria
- jaundice
- vital signs fluctuation
- symptoms of diabetes
- After administering meperidine hydrochloride, the nurse determines its effectiveness as an analgesic was related to its ability to:
- reduce the perception of pain
- decrease the sensitivity of pain receptors
- interfere with pain impulses travelling along sensory nerve fibers
- block the conduction of pain impulses along the CNS
- Miotics are frequently used in the treatment of glaucoma. The nurse should understand that miotics work by:
- paralyzing ciliary muscles
- constricting intraocular vessels
- constricting the pupil
- relaxing ciliary muscles
- A client is ordered a cephalosporin to treat a bacterial infection. The nurse is aware that side effects associated with most cephalosporins include the following:
- nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
- photophobia and photosensitivity
- pain with urination
- fever ands sweats
- A client who reports an allergy to penicillin is ordered to received cephalexin. Which of the following is the correct action for the nurse:
- administer the medication as ordered
- administer the medication and carefully observe for allergic reactions
- call the physician to change the order
- administer another antibiotic
- A client has urinary retention. He was prescribed bethanechol. The primary action is to:
- increase urination
- increase salivation
- decrease heart rate
- increase GI motility
- The group of drugs that contains magnesium and if taken in excess can cause hypermagnesemia:
- laxatives and steroids
- laxatives and antacids
- antacids and antibiotics
- antacids and steroids
- In monitoring a client on potassium supplements the nurse observes for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia which includes:
- oliguria, tachycardia and later bradychardia
- soft, flabby muscles
- abdominal distention
- blurred vision and loss of hearing
- A 5 year old client has an elevated temperature due to a viral respiratory infection. The choice of nonanrcotic drug to decrease body temperature is:
- aspirin
- acetaminophen
- bufferin
- anacin
- Meperidne is a synthetic narcotic used frequently for acute pain. The serious side effect is:
- orthostatic hypotension
- nausea and vomiting
- constipation
- hypertension
- A nurse is planning the care for a client receiving narcotic analgesia. Which of the following is considered a priority in planning this care:
- monitoring respiratory rate
- listening for adventitious breath sounds
- assessing papillary reactions
- increasing the IVF rate
- A client with myasthenia gravis is noted to be salivating, tearing and sweating. The client complains of muscle weakness. The nurse would anticipate administering:
- pyridostigmine
- neostigmine
- edrophonium
- atropine sulfate
- Leukotriene is a chemical mediator that can cause:
- Infectious lung disease
- Inflammatory changes in the lungs
- acute asthma attack
- bronchodilation
- When using a mucolytic drug and a bronchodilator in nebulizer the nurse should instruct the client that:
- the mucolytic drug should be given 30min before the bronchodilator
- the bronchodilator should be given 30min before the mucolytic drug
- the mucolytic drug should be given 5min before the bronchodilator
- the bronchodilator should be given 5min before the mucolytic drug
- Mr. JK is prescribed with an anticholinergic agent. You know that this drug is contraindicated if he has:
- narrow-angle glaucoma
- gastrointestinal distention
- bradycahrdia
- urinary frequency
- A client who takes an intermediate or long acting hypnotic may cause residual drowsiness and impaired reaction time upon awakening. This side effect is called:
- hangover
- dependence
- tolerance
- depression
- KJ, 35 yo, diagnosed with CLL is ordered to receive interferon-alpha. The nurse counsels the client that the major side effect is:
- agranulocytosis
- marked weight gain
- palpitations
- flulike syndrome
- A client receives a hypnotic agent prior to sleep. Which of the following instructions would the nurse emphasize in client teaching:
- “You need to limit the amount of sodium in your diet.”
- “Caffeine is not allowed with this medication.”
- “While on this medication, you need to eat orange juice and bananas.”
- “You need to change positions slowly in order to avoid dizziness.”
- PL, diabetic, with CRF on maintenance hemodialysis and on 3x weekly erythropoietin injection after dialysis. Which of the following statements about erythropoietin is true:
- it is a glycoprotein produced by the kidneys that stimulates rbc production
- it is evaluated by absolute neutrophil count
- it is given only via a large central venous line
- is side effects include bone pain and arthalgia
- A client is taking large doses of vitamin C. She tells you she heard it prevents and cures colds and is wondering if this is true. Your response is:
- “Yes, it is most helpful in preventing colds; however, large doses are required.”
- “It is a fat-soluble vitamin and should not be taken in large doses.”
- “I have also heard that vitamin C will help prevent colds; however, so far it hasn’t been proven.”
- “Vitamin C should be taken by only children and the elderly.”
- Absorption of iron intake may be hampered by:
- oral ascorbic acid and citrus fruits
- antacids and food
- other multivitamins concurrently used
- iron intake 2 hours before mealtime
- A client is ordered to receive cyclophosphamide. The client is advised to drink increased water and fluids to:
- prevent renal failure
- prevent liver dysfunction
- prevent hemorrhagic cystitis
- increase rbc count
- A client manifests stomatitis due to superinfection. The nurse would anticipate which of the following antifungal drugs to be ordered:
- rifampin
- tetracycline
- pyridoxine
- nystatin
- A client is diagnosed with Type 2 DM. The nurse counsels the client that the mineral that is helpful for controlling NIDDM is:
- chromium
- zinc
- iron
- selenium
- Phenothiazines and nonphenothiazines are effective for treating positive symptoms of psychotic behavior. A common side effect for which the nurse must monitor is:
- hypertension
- renal failure
- increase wbc
- EPS
- Indirect-acting cholinergics act by:
- inhibiting the action of the enzyme cholinesterase
- promoting the action of the enzyme cholinesterase
- inhibiting the action directly on the cholinergic receptors
- promoting the action directly on the cholinergic receptors
- Anxiolytics are primarily used for treating;
- anxiety and psychosis
- anxiety and depression
- insomnia and depression
- anxiety and insomnia
- A client experiences bradycardia due to vagal stimulation. The nurse would expect to administer:
- bethanecol
- benztropine
- metoclopromide
- atropine sulfate
- Infants have decreased plasma protein-binding sites because of decreased plasma protein and albumin levels. With drugs that are highly protein bound, the drug dose usually:
- increased
- decreased
- same dose as for an adult
- not affected
- A client questions a nurse about taking antiretrovirals with other medications which may cause drug interactions. The nurse should make which of following statements with regard to taking these medications:
- “Make sure you do not take your antiviral medications with any other medications.”
- “Bring all your medications into the office as soon as possible and we can ensure that they are safe to take together.”
- “Next time you go to your doctor, let the doctor know all the medications you are taking.”
- “If you have any questions about your medications, ask the local pharmacist.”
- Which of the following is the most exact and predictable route through which to administer medications in children:
- oral
- rectal
- IM
- IV
- Nursing interventions regarding the administration of nitrofurantoin includes:
- take the drug between meals
- take the drug 1 hour before meals and at bedtime
- take the drug with meals
- take the drug either 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals
- A postoperative client received morphine in the recovery room. Upon assessment, the nurse notes that the client’s RR is 6/min. with decreased level of consciousness. The doctor orders naloxone. The nurse administers this medication with the knowledge that it is:
- respiratory stimulant
- opioid antagonist
- bronchodilator
- anticonvulsant
- Which teaching is a priority for the client who is taking fluconazole:
- take concurrent vitamin B6 to prevent peripheral neuropathy
- take 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals
- advise that hypoglycemia may occur with concurrent oral sulfonylureas
- warn that gingival hyperplasia may occur with prolonged use
- PP is prescribed an oral hypoglycemic metformin. What side effects/adverse effects are common to metformin:
- seizures
- constipation
- bitter or metallic taste
- polyuria and polydipsia
- PJ is taking cimetidine. Which of the following statement indicates correct understanding regarding his medication:
- “I should take my medications only if I feel sour stomach.”
- “I should take my medications with meals and before sleep.”
- “I should discontinue my medicine if I would experience loose bowel movement.”
- “I can take any over the counter medication anytime.”
- Which of the following side effects is most frequently seen with the use of sucralfate:
- constipation
- back pain
- vertigo
- diarrhea
- The following antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis except:
- tetracycline
- aminoglycosides
- cephalospsorins
- macrolides
- The effect of aspirin is the inhibition of the enzyme cyclooxygenase. This enzyme is used by the body to primarily produce:
- bradykinin
- histamine
- prostaglandin
- leokotrienes
- A patient is taking amphoterecin B. Which of the following must be reported immediately which may be related to the side effects of this drug:
- muscle pain
- hypoglycemia
- urine output of 1000cc/24hrs
- chills and fever
- An antidote used to reverse paracetamol poisoning is:
- acetylcisteine
- carbocisteine
- salbutamol
- aspirint
- A drug used to help relieve pain in patients with gouty arthritis is:
- mefenamic acid
- diclofenac sodium
- paracetamol
- colchicines
- When assessing for a therapeutic effect of acetylcisteine, the nurse would expect to find:
- decrease cough reflex
- deceased nasal secretions
- liquefying and loosening of secretions
- relief of bronchospasm
- JL is on her 3rd cycle chemotherapy. If extravasation of antineoplastic agent occurs, which of the following actions should not be taken:
- remove the intravenous catheter immediately
- stop the agent but leave the intravenous tube
- aspirate residual drug or blood from the tube if possible
- administer the appropriate antidote
- The nurse identifies a knowledge deficit regarding warfarin when the client states:
- “I will avoid contact sports.”
- “I will take my medication in the early evening each day.”
- “I will increase dark green leafy vegetables in my diet.”
- “I will contact my health care provider if I develop excessive bruising.”
- LP is scheduled for appendectomy.The anesthesiologist ordered atropine injection at 8:30am. Which nursing action would be appropriate:
- give the drug with meals
- monitor the clients vital signs
- auscultate for breath sounds
- observe for orthostatic hypotension
- Which teaching would have the highest priority for the client with gout taking colchicine:
- increase vitamin C
- avoid alcohol and caffeine
- increase foods high in purine
- take colchicines 2 hours before meals
- MC, a 64 y/o female is being given aspirin for her arthritis. She overdosed on the drug after taking more than the usual dose. Which of the following is a usual physiologic problem associated with the drug?
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Metabolic acidosis
- respiratory alkalosis
- respiratory acidosis
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