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Homework answers / question archive / Florida Atlantic University - ECO 4223 Chapter 6(17) Measuring Inflation and Unemployment 1)The twin perils of the modern macro economy are said to be:         A) government and the trade deficit

Florida Atlantic University - ECO 4223 Chapter 6(17) Measuring Inflation and Unemployment 1)The twin perils of the modern macro economy are said to be:         A) government and the trade deficit

Economics

Florida Atlantic University - ECO 4223

Chapter 6(17)

Measuring Inflation and Unemployment

1)The twin perils of the modern macro economy are said to be:

 

 

 

 

A)

government and the trade deficit.

 

B)

unemployment and the trade surplus.

 

C)

inflation and unemployment.

 

D)

inflation and the trade deficit.

 

 

2.

Which one of the following would NOT lead to higher prices?

 

A)

strong consumer demand

 

B)

higher gas prices

 

C)

an increase in the supply of money

 

D)

an increase in the supply of food

 

 

3.

Which of the following terms describes a situation in which there is a reduction in the rate of inflation from 4% to 3% per year?

 

A)

hyperinflation

 

B)

inflation

 

C)

deflation

 

D)

disinflation

 

 

4.

Which of the following statements does NOT describe a problem in measuring the consumer price index (CPI)?

 

A)

The CPI measures only private goods and services.

 

B)

The CPI uses a fixed market basket of goods determined by surveys that are three to five years old.

 

C)

Approximately 10% of the original market basket must be replaced each year by products that are improved or modified.

 

D)

The CPI  includes new products in its baskets.

 

 

5.

Which statement about chained consumer price index for urban consumers (C-CPI-U) is TRUE?

 

A)

It does a better job in approximating a cost-of-living index than the CPI.

 

B)

It takes less time to estimate than the CPI.

 

C)

It is generally higher than the CPI.

 

D)

It has no advantage over the CPI.

 

 

6.

The producer price index contains:

 

A)

a fluctuating bundle of consumer goods and services.

 

B)

prices for all goods and services in the economy.

 

C)

information from the consumer expenditure survey.

 

D)

aggregate measures of price changes, organized by stage of processing.

 

 

7.

The GDP deflator is an index that includes prices of all of the following EXCEPT:

 

A)

consumer goods.

 

B)

investment goods.

 

C)

imports.

 

D)

government goods and services.

 

 

8.

Arlina got a 5% raise while the rate of inflation was 6%. Arlina's standard of living:

 

A)

rose by 1%.

 

B)

rose by 2%.

 

C)

fell by 3%.

 

D)

fell by 1%.

 

 

9.

In the United States, our principal measure of inflation is:

 

A)

the consumer price index.

 

B)

gross domestic product.

 

C)

the producer price index.

 

D)

the Leading Economic Index.

 

 

10.

_____ is a reduction in the rate of inflation.

 

A)

Disinflation

 

B)

Deflation

 

C)

Hyperinflation

 

D)

The price level

 

 

11.

_____ is an overall decline in prices throughout the economy.

 

A)

Disinflation

 

B)

Deflation

 

C)

Hyperinflation

 

D)

The price level

 

 

12.

_____ is a measure of the change in average prices paid by urban consumers for a typical market basket of goods and services.

 

A)

The consumer price index

 

B)

The producer price index

 

C)

Personal consumption expenditure

 

D)

The GDP deflator

 

 

13.

_____ is a measure of the changes in the average prices received by domestic producers for their output.

 

A)

The consumer price index

 

B)

The producer price index

 

C)

Personal consumption expenditure

 

D)

The GDP deflator

 

 

14.

_____ is an index of the average prices for all goods and services in the economy and is the broadest measure of inflation.

 

A)

The consumer price index

 

B)

The producer price index

 

C)

Personal consumption expenditure

 

D)

The GDP deflator

 

 

15.

What is real GDP in 2014 dollars if nominal GDP in 2014 is $15,000 billion, the GDP deflator in 2014 is 110, and the GDP deflator in 2010 was 100?

 

A)

$9, 100 billion

 

B)

$13,636 billion

 

C)

$14,010 billion

 

D)

$16, 500 billion

 

 

16.

If nominal GDP in 2014 is $20,000 billion while real GDP is $16,000 billion, then the GDP deflator in 2014 is:

 

A)

80.

 

B)

110.

 

C)

125.

 

D)

150.

 

 

17.

Inflation is a:

 

A)

steady rise in the unemployment rate across all labor markets.

 

B)

general rise in interest rates.

 

C)

decline in confidence in prices.

 

D)

general rise in prices.

 

 

18.

Jennifer received news that she is getting a 5% raise. However, the Bureau of Labor Statistics just reported that prices are rising by 7%. Based on the given information, which of the following is true?

 

A)

Jennifer's purchasing power will rise by 2%.

 

B)

Jennifer is losing purchasing power by 2%.

 

C)

Inflation has no impact on purchasing power.

 

D)

Jennifer's purchasing power will rise by 7%.

 

 

19.

When an economy is going through disinflation:

 

A)

prices are falling.

 

B)

prices fall back to their original levels.

 

C)

prices have stopped rising.

 

D)

prices are rising at a slowing pace.

 

 

20.

If the rate of inflation decreases from 5% to 3%, the economy is undergoing:

 

A)

deflation.

 

B)

hyperinflation.

 

C)

disinflation.

 

D)

stagflation.

 

 

21.

The conversion formula for the current dollar value to the constant dollar value is:

 

A)

real × (base year index / current year index).

 

B)

nominal × (base year index / current year index).

 

C)

real / (base year / current year index).

 

D)

nominal / (base year / current year index).

 

 

22.

Suppose in 2010 the cost of purchasing a basket of goods was $100. That same basket cost $150 in 2011. If 2010 is the base year, the consumer price index for 2011 is:

 

A)

100.

 

B)

50.

 

C)

250.

 

D)

150.

 

 

23.

Which of the following is NOT true?

 

A)

The consumer price index does not account for product substitutions well.

 

B)

The consumer price index does not account for all goods and services consumed by households.

 

C)

The consumer price index is a cost-of-living index.

 

D)

The consumer price index measures inflation.

 

 

24.

Last year, the consumer price index (CPI) was 115 while the consumer price index for this year is 125. The rate of inflation is:

 

A)

8.7%.

 

B)

8%.

 

C)

9.2%.

 

D)

10.8%.

 

 

25.

Suppose three years ago a nation's inflation rate was 8%, two years ago it was 5%, and last year it was 2%. This nation is undergoing:

 

A)

deflation.

 

B)

hyperinflation.

 

C)

a drop in its price level.

 

D)

disinflation.

 

 

26.

From 1999 to 2002, the Japanese inflation rates were, respectively, –0.3%, –0.6%, –0.7%, and –0.7%. During this time, the Japanese economy underwent:

 

A)

inflation.

 

B)

hyperinflation.

 

C)

a rise in its price level.

 

D)

deflation.

 

 

27.

Measuring changes in a fixed basket of goods to assess changes in price is a _____ method.

 

A)

cost-of-goods index

 

B)

cost-of-living index

 

C)

cost-of-production

 

D)

utility maximization

 

 

28.

The broadest measure of inflation is:

 

A)

the consumer price index.

 

B)

the GDP deflator.

 

C)

the personal consumption expenditures index.

 

D)

the producer price index.

 

 

29.

Suppose the market basket of goods and services cost $3,500 in 1996 but today costs $4,250. Using 1996 as the base year, the consumer price index for today is:

 

A)

79.6.

 

B)

120.0.

 

C)

82.4.

 

D)

121.4.

 

 

30.

The consumer price index does NOT include:

 

A)

the price of a haircut.

 

B)

property taxes.

 

C)

apartment rental rates.

 

D)

the price of milk.

 

 

31.

When the Bureau of Labor Statistics calculates the consumer price index, it assumes that:

 

A)

each consumer maximizes his or her utility.

 

B)

consumers do not substitute cheaper goods for goods when prices have risen.

 

C)

consumers overspend.

 

D)

there is no unemployment.

 

 

32.

(Table) Suppose the Bureau of Labor Statistics collects the data presented in the following table:

 

 

If 2010 is the base year, then the consumer price index for 2012 is:

 

A)

100.

 

B)

114.

 

C)

115.

 

D)

125.

 

 

33.

Most economists believe that the consumer price index _____ the rate of inflation.

 

A)

understates

 

B)

overstates

 

C)

accurately states

 

D)

dis-inflates

 

 

34.

Which of the following assumptions is NOT a problem in using the consumer price index (CPI) to accurately state the rate of inflation?

 

A)

The CPI assumes that people do not substitute goods.

 

B)

The CPI does not account for quality changes.

 

C)

The CPI does not include new products.

 

D)

The CPI does not deal with producer prices.

 

 

35.

Which of the following statements represents a problem with accurately measuring the price of health care?

 

A)

Payments made by Medicaid and Medicare are not included.

 

B)

People with good health insurance policies overuse health facilities.

 

C)

Doctors sometimes charge excessive and inaccurate prices.

 

D)

Pharmaceutical prices are not market prices.

 

 

36.

Which of the following would be included in the consumer price index?

 

A)

a payment made to your doctor on your behalf by Medicare

 

B)

a payment made by you to your doctor

 

C)

a payment made to your doctor on your behalf by your employer-provided insurance company

 

D)

a payment made to your doctor on your behalf by Medicaid

 

 

37.

Which of the following statements describes a difference between the consumer price index (CPI) and the producer price index (PPI)?

 

A)

Only the CPI is associated with the problem of quality changes.

 

B)

Only the PPI is associated with the problem of products dropped from the basket.

 

C)

Only the PPI measures net revenues received by firms.

 

D)

Only the PPI has a fixed market basket.

 

 

38.

Core inflation is found by removing _____ from the consumer price index.

 

A)

housing

 

B)

medical care

 

C)

food and energy

 

D)

producer prices

 

 

39.

The price of feed corn would be included in the:

 

A)

consumer price index.

 

B)

personal consumption expenditures price index.

 

C)

producer price index.

 

D)

core consumer price index.

 

 

40.

Which of the following items is NOT included in the GDP deflator?

 

A)

bubble gum

 

B)

turbines

 

C)

fire engines

 

D)

imported mangoes

 

 

41.

(Table) According to the table, the GDP deflator for 2012 is:

 

 

 

A)

0.

 

B)

1.

 

C)

72.8.

 

D)

100.

 

 

42.

(Table) According to the table, nominal GDP for 2013 is approximately:

 

 

 

A)

$7,292 billion.

 

B)

$7,492 billion.

 

C)

$7,692 billion.

 

D)

$7,892 billion.

 

 

43.

(Table) According to the table, real GDP for 2014 is approximately:

 

 

 

A)

$7,540 billion.

 

B)

$7,894 billion.

 

C)

$8,106 billion.

 

D)

$8,488 billion.

 

 

44.

(Table) According to the table, the GDP deflator for 2012 is approximately:

 

 

 

A)

40.9.

 

B)

50.9.

 

C)

60.9.

 

D)

70.9.

 

 

45.

(Table) According to the table, nominal GDP for 2013 is approximately:

 

 

 

A)

$5,050 billion.

 

B)

$5,250 billion.

 

C)

$5,450 billion.

 

D)

$5,650 billion.

 

 

46.

(Table) According to the table, real GDP for 2014 is approximately:

 

 

 

A)

$6,552 billion.

 

B)

$7,052 billion.

 

C)

$7,552 billion.

 

D)

$8,052 billion.

 

 

47.

Which of the following is included in the consumer price index?

 

A)

price of bauxite

 

B)

price of a hotel room in Beirut, Lebanon

 

C)

price of crude oil

 

D)

price of gasoline

 

 

48.

If the cost of a typical market basket in 2019 is 400 and the cost of a typical market basket in 2020 is 390, then during this period the economy is undergoing:

 

A)

inflation.

 

B)

disinflation.

 

C)

deflation.

 

D)

hyperinflation.

 

 

49.

If the cost of a typical market basket is 400 in 2018, 410 in 2019, and 405 in 2020, then during this period the economy is undergoing:

 

A)

inflation.

 

B)

disinflation.

 

C)

deflation.

 

D)

hyperinflation.

 

 

50.

If the cost of a typical market basket is 400 in 2018, 450 in 2019, and 550 in 2020, then during this period the economy is undergoing:

 

A)

inflation.

 

B)

disinflation.

 

C)

deflation.

 

D)

hyperinflation.

 

 

51.

The current consumer price index is:

 

A)

a cost-of-goods index.

 

B)

a true cost-of-living measure.

 

C)

based on a changing bundle of goods and services from one period to the next.

 

D)

calculated by dividing the market basket's cost in the base period by its cost in the current period.

 

 

52.

Suppose a market basket of goods costs $10,000 in 2009, the  base period, and that same basket of goods now costs $11,200. What is the consumer price index for the current period?

 

A)

112.0

 

B)

120.0

 

C)

89.3

 

D)

132.0

 

 

53.

Suppose the market basket of goods costs $10,000 in 2009, the  base period, and that same basket of goods now costs $11,200. What has been the percentage change in the cost of goods between the base period and the current period?

 

A)

+20%

 

B)

+11.2%

 

C)

–10.7%

 

D)

–20%

 

 

54.

Prices from about _____ goods and services are collected each month by Bureau of Labor Statistics data collectors to be used in calculating the consumer price index.

 

A)

800

 

B)

8,000

 

C)

80,000

 

D)

800,000

 

 

55.

In 2009, a market basket of goods and services cost $100 in Merryland while the same basket cost $200 in Berryland. In 2010, the cost in Merryland was $150 and in Berryland, the cost was $225. Based on the given information, which of the following statements is true?

 

A)

Neither of the countries underwent inflation.

 

B)

Berryland has more inflation than Merryland.

 

C)

The countries have the same rate of inflation.

 

D)

The rate of inflation is four times as large in Merryland as in Berryland.

 

 

56.

Which of the following is NOT generally considered a problem with using the consumer price index to measure consumer prices?

 

A)

Only private goods are considered and public goods are excluded.

 

B)

Many federal benefits and income tax rates are indexed to the consumer price index.

 

C)

Quality improvements are difficult to account for.

 

D)

New products are often overlooked.

 

 

57.

Which of the following is a problem in measuring consumer prices?

 

A)

The consumer price index does not account for product substitution.

 

B)

The consumer price index is not easy to adjust to changes in the quality of products.

 

C)

It takes time to include new products in the consumer price index.

 

D)

All answer choices are correct.

 

 

58.

The GDP deflator shows that since the mid-1980s, the U.S. economy has had:

 

A)

deflation.

 

B)

hyperinflation.

 

C)

an increasing inflation rate.

 

D)

disinflation.

 

 

59.

If the current year's consumer price index is 214 and last year's consumer price index was 209, then the rate of inflation is:

 

A)

2.4%.

 

B)

5%.

 

C)

3%.

 

D)

2.8%.

 

 

60.

Dave brags to his dad that his $45,000 starting salary as a computer programmer is much higher than his dad's $28,000 starting salary some years ago. If the consumer price index the year Dave begins work is 180.5 while the consumer price index the year his dad started work was 110.8, Dave is:

 

A)

correct; adjusting for price changes, his salary is more than his dad's salary.

 

B)

correct; adjusting for quantity changes, his salary is more than his dad's salary.

 

C)

incorrect; adjusting for price changes, his salary is less than his dad's salary.

 

D)

incorrect; adjusting for quantity changes, his salary is less than his dad's salary.

 

 

61.

The GDP deflator for the base year is:

 

A)

less than 100.

 

B)

always equal to 100.

 

C)

greater than 100.

 

D)

dependent on the quantities of output and the prices at which outputs are sold in the base year.

 

 

62.

Nominal GDP in 2006 was $13,458.2 billion.  In 2006, the GDP deflator was 116.9. What was the real GDP for 2006 if the GDP deflator uses 2000 as the base year?

 

A)

$15,732.6 billion

 

B)

$15,746.1 billion

 

C)

$11,512.6 billion

 

D)

$11,522.5 billion

 

 

63.

Janet is receiving a 5% pay raise. If the rate of inflation is 2%, then Janet's purchasing power is:

 

A)

falling.

 

B)

rising.

 

C)

unaffected by either inflation or the pay raise, because they are expressed in nominal and not in real terms.

 

D)

It is impossible to tell what is happening to Janet's purchasing power without further information.

 

 

64.

What is your new salary if you earned $40,000 last year, the consumer price index increased from 120 to 125, and your salary is adjusted by the rate of inflation annually?

 

A)

$38,400

 

B)

$41,600

 

C)

$41,666.67

 

D)

$40,125

 

 

65.

If the nominal GDP is $13 trillion for a given year and the GDP deflator for that year is 115, then the real GDP is:

 

A)

$11.3 trillion.

 

B)

$14.95 trillion.

 

C)

$12.0 trillion.

 

D)

$13.0 trillion.

 

 

66.

Jill has an escalator clause in her labor contract that gives her a raise equal to the change in the consumer price index (CPI). Last year she earned $40,000 and the CPI was 100. If the CPI this year is 110, her new salary is:

 

A)

$40,110.

 

B)

$50,000.

 

C)

$40,100.

 

D)

$44,000.

 

 

67.

The inflation rate is 4%. If Social Security payments automatically rise by 4%, this adjustment is authorized by an:

 

A)

inflation rate.

 

B)

escalator clause.

 

C)

elevator clause.

 

D)

insanity clause.

 

 

68.

John expects to get a raise equal to the increase in the consumer price index (CPI). The CPI has gone from 160 to 164. If John's salary last year was $50,000, what salary does he expect to earn this year?

 

A)

$51,250

 

B)

$48,750

 

C)

$52,220

 

D)

$52,250

 

 

69.

GDP is $10 trillion in 2001. If the GDP deflator is 100 in 2000 and is 110 in 2001, what is real GDP?

 

A)

$10.0 trillion

 

B)

$11.1 trillion

 

C)

$9.09 trillion

 

D)

$110.0 trillion

 

 

70.

If your salary was $50,000 last year, and this year you receive a cost-of-living increase tied to the consumer price index (CPI), what will your salary be this year assuming the CPI has risen from 110 to 114?

 

A)

$49,114

 

B)

$50,114

 

C)

$50,300

 

D)

$51,818

 

 

71.

Suppose Robert has a wage contract subject to an escalator clause. He earned $22 per hour last year. In the same year, the consumer price index rose from 120.0 to 126.0. Based on the given information, what should his new wage be?

 

A)

$24 per hour

 

B)

$23.10 per hour

 

C)

$24.40 per hour

 

D)

$22.50 per hour

 

 

72.

In the first quarter of 2010, nominal GDP  was $14,592.3 billion and the GDP deflator was 110.2.  Real GDP for the first quarter of 2010, then, was equal to:

 

A)

$13,133.1 billion.

 

B)

$13,241.7 billion.

 

C)

$13,103.9 billion.

 

D)

$13,424.9 billion.

 

 

73.

Last year, Megan's salary was $65,000 while the consumer price index increased from 109 to 115. If Megan received a cost-of-living adjustment, what would her salary be?

 

A)

$61,553

 

B)

$61,320

 

C)

$67,564

 

D)

$68,578

 

 

74.

For your purchasing power to stay the same, your wages must:

 

A)

increase faster than the rate of inflation.

 

B)

increase at the same rate as inflation.

 

C)

decrease as the rate of inflation increases.

 

D)

increase more slowly than the rate of inflation.

 

 

75.

During periods of inflation, which of the following events does NOT occur?

 

A)

Mortgage lenders seek inflation adjustments.

 

B)

Workers seek escalator clauses.

 

C)

People on a fixed income have increased standards of living.

 

D)

People on a fixed income have decreased standards of living.

 

 

76.

Retirees and creditors:

 

A)

benefit from inflation because they are paid in cheaper dollars.

 

B)

benefit from inflation because interest rates rise.

 

C)

are hurt by inflation because their purchasing power is reduced.

 

D)

are hurt by inflation because taxes fall.

 

 

77.

All of the following are true for inflation EXCEPT:

 

A)

those on a fixed income lose purchasing power during inflationary periods.

 

B)

creditors do not receive the full amount of a loan because the principle and interest rates are fixed.

 

C)

debtors are hurt during inflationary times because the amount they pay creditors back increases.

 

D)

increased prices due to high inflation cause consumers to spend less money.

 

 

78.

Inflation has significant long-run effects on the economy because:

 

A)

it distorts the price signal and produces incentives for speculation.

 

B)

it can enhance the purchasing power of a fixed income.

 

C)

it can lead to an improvement in real values.

 

D)

creditors can gain from inflation.

 

 

79.

Suppose that anticipated inflation is 4% for the coming year, with loan contracts set at 7% with the expectation of a 3% return after inflation. If the actual inflation rate at the end of the year is 2%:

 

A)

creditors gain at the expense of debtors.

 

B)

people on a fixed income see the purchasing power of their incomes rising.

 

C)

debtors gain at the expense of creditors.

 

D)

there is a redistribution of income from creditors to debtors.

 

 

80.

Which of the following groups benefit from an unanticipated rise in the inflation rate?

 

A)

homeowners with fixed-rate mortgages

 

B)

elderly people living on a fixed income

 

C)

creditors or lenders

 

D)

workers on contracts without escalator clauses

 

 

81.

Which group is helped by inflation?

 

A)

senior citizens on a fixed income

 

B)

debtors

 

C)

restaurant owners who must reprint menus

 

D)

creditors

 

 

82.

Which of the following statements about stopping hyperinflation is NOT correct?

 

A)

The government must reduce the budget deficit.

 

B)

The growth of the money supply must decrease.

 

C)

Borrowing from foreign governments must take place.

 

D)

A change in government and a new currency are usually required.

 

 

83.

(Table) The associated table provides a hypothetical bundle of goods and their respective prices for three different years.  If 2014 is selected as the base year, the cost of the market basket in 2017 would be would be: 

 

 

 

A)

$520.50.

 

B)

$587.75.

 

C)

$640.50.

 

D)

$651.75.

 

 

84.

(Table) The associated table provides a hypothetical bundle of goods.  If 2014 is selected as the base year, the value of the CPI in 2017 would be:

 

 

 

A)

100.00.

 

B)

108.98.

 

C)

88.50.

 

D)

105.00.

 

 

85.

(Table) The associated table provides a hypothetical bundle of goods.  If 2014 is selected as the base year, the value of the GDP deflator in 2017 would be:

 

 

 

A)

100.00.

 

B)

108.90.

 

C)

88.50.

 

D)

105.00.

 

 

86.

(Table) The associated table provides a hypothetical bundle of goods.  If 2014 is selected as the base year, the value of nominal GDP in 2017 would be: 

 

 

A)

$565.00.

 

B)

$500.00.

 

C)

$709.75.

 

D)

$651.75.

 

 

87.

(Table) The associated table provides a hypothetical bundle of goods.  If 2014 is selected as the base year, the economy is experiencing _____ in 2017. 

 

 

 

A)

inflation

 

B)

disinflation

 

C)

deflation

 

D)

hyperinflation

 

 

88.

Lexie works Monday to Friday from 4 P.M. to 6 P.M. in the after-school program at a local elementary school. She began looking for a full-time job last week and has already scheduled three job interviews. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Lexie is:

 

A)

a discouraged worker.

 

B)

unemployed.

 

C)

employed.

 

D)

not in the labor force.

 

 

89.

Jordan Meadows lost his job as an airline pilot and has not been able to find another job as a pilot. Since he is old enough to be eligible for his pension, he decides to retire and devote himself to caring for his elderly parents. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Jordan is:

 

A)

employed.

 

B)

unemployed.

 

C)

a discouraged worker.

 

D)

not in the labor force.

 

 

90.

An economy has a population of 226,500,  of whom 12,500 are unemployed and actively seeking work, and 35,000 have given up looking for a job. Also, 28,000 people work part-time, and 151,000 people work full-time. This economy's unemployment rate is _____.

 

A)

7.0%

 

B)

21.0%

 

C)

5.5%

 

D)

21.1%

 

 

91.

Zach has been laid off from his job as an aircraft worker . He has been actively looking for a job but has had no luck for the past six weeks. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Zach is:

 

A)

employed.

 

B)

unemployed.

 

C)

a discouraged worker.

 

D)

not in the labor force.

 

 

92.

Unemployment rates over the past 50 years have tended to hover between:

 

A)

1% to 2%.

 

B)

5% to 6%.

 

C)

10% to 11%.

 

D)

25% to 26%.

 

 

93.

In 2012, the group with the highest unemployment rate in the United States was:

 

A)

whites.

 

B)

African Americans.

 

C)

Hispanics.

 

D)

college graduates.

 

 

94.

In 2012, the group with the lowest unemployment rate in the United States was:

 

A)

high school graduates.

 

B)

college graduates.

 

C)

people with less than a bachelor's degree.

 

D)

people with less than a high school diploma.

 

 

95.

The main reason people were unemployed in the United States in 2012 was because they:

 

A)

were new entrants into the labor force.

 

B)

were reentrants into the labor force.

 

C)

lost their job.

 

D)

left their job.

 

 

96.

Which statement about the Weekly Jobs Report is NOT true?

 

A)

It is released by the Department of Labor.

 

B)

It contains an estimate of the total number of people receiving unemployment benefits.

 

C)

It is used as a way to estimate trends in layoffs.

 

D)

It is used as a way to estimate trends in hiring.

 

 

97.

Roughly half of unemployment normally consists of:

 

A)

people who lost their job.

 

B)

people who were job leavers.

 

C)

people reentering the job market.

 

D)

people who are new to the job market.

 

 

98.

People are considered employed if they are:

 

A)

unpaid family workers.

 

B)

on strike.

 

C)

on vacation.

 

D)

All of those listed are considered employed.

 

 

99.

In the United States, people are considered unemployed if and when they:

 

A)

have become discouraged and are no longer actively seeking work.

 

B)

do not have a job but are available for work and have been actively seeking work.

 

C)

are working at a job that does not fully utilize their skills.

 

D)

are on family leave.

 

 

100.

People who are considered unemployed include:

 

A)

those who are doing temporary work.

 

B)

those who are unpaid family workers.

 

C)

those who do not have a job and are not actively seeking employment.

 

D)

None of those listed is considered unemployed.

 

 

101.

(Table) According to the table, what is the labor force of this economy?

 

 

 

A)

50

 

B)

300

 

C)

350

 

D)

500

 

 

102.

(Table) According to the table, what is the unemployment rate of this economy?

 

 

 

A)

10%

 

B)

14.3%

 

C)

16.67%

 

D)

25%

 

 

103.

(Table) According to the table, if 50 discouraged workers suddenly decide to start actively seeking employment again, what will be the unemployment rate of this economy?

 

 

 

A)

10%

 

B)

14.3%

 

C)

16.67%

 

D)

25%

 

 

104.

Which of the following persons is considered to be unemployed?

 

A)

Ahmed, who is on vacation

 

B)

Sarah, who is on strike duty

 

C)

Tiffany, who is going on interviews, hoping to get her first job

 

D)

Carmen, who works three days a week at her father's business but is not paid

 

 

105.

Tom is living with his parents. He looks at the help wanted ads but has not replied to any in the past four weeks. Tom is:

 

A)

unemployed.

 

B)

not in the labor force.

 

C)

temporarily in the labor force.

 

D)

near-employed.

 

 

106.

The nation of Workovia has a population of 15 million, of whom, 10 million are in the labor force and 9 million are working. Workovia's unemployment rate is:

 

A)

27%.

 

B)

60%.

 

C)

33%.

 

D)

10%.

 

 

107.

The unemployment rate is defined as the _____ divided by the _____.

 

A)

number unemployed; population

 

B)

number unemployed; number working

 

C)

number unemployed; number in the labor force

 

D)

number passively looking for a job; number in the labor force

 

 

108.

The labor force is defined as:

 

A)

the total number of those with gainful employment.

 

B)

the total number of the employed and unemployed.

 

C)

the total population less the number unemployed.

 

D)

the number of workers seeking a paid job.

 

 

109.

Which of the following activities would NOT qualify a person as being in the labor force?

 

A)

going on interviews

 

B)

submitting applications through the Internet

 

C)

using social media to reach out to employers

 

D)

reading help wanted ads

 

 

110.

(Table) According to the table, the number of people in the labor force is:

 

 

 

A)

115.

 

B)

110.

 

C)

130.

 

D)

120.

 

 

111.

The unemployment rate is:

 

A)

100% minus the labor force participation rate.

 

B)

the number of unemployed divided by the total population.

 

C)

the number of employed divided by the labor force.

 

D)

the number of unemployed divided by the labor force.

 

 

112.

The key to being counted as unemployed by the Bureau of Labor Statistics is to be:

 

A)

out of a job.

 

B)

available for work.

 

C)

actively seeking work.

 

D)

passively seeking work.

 

 

113.

There are 15 million people living in Marketstan, of whom 9 million are working and 1 million are actively looking for work. What is the size of Marketstan's labor force?

 

A)

15 million

 

B)

10 million

 

C)

5 million

 

D)

16 million

 

 

114.

There are 15 million people living in Marketstan, of whom 9 million are working and 1 million are actively looking for work. What is Marketstan's unemployment rate?

 

A)

6.7%

 

B)

1%

 

C)

10%

 

D)

11.1%

 

 

115.

How many hours does a person have to work for pay to be counted as employed?

 

A)

1 hour a week

 

B)

1 hour a day

 

C)

20 hours a week

 

D)

40 hours a week

 

 

116.

Which of the following people would NOT be considered employed?

 

A)

a person working 10 hours a week for pay

 

B)

a unionized worker on strike

 

C)

an unpaid family employee working 10 hours a week

 

D)

a full-time worker on vacation last week

 

 

117.

A passive job search:

 

A)

entails merely talking to friends about jobs.

 

B)

means participating in productive activities, like sending off résumés.

 

C)

entails the scheduling of job interviews.

 

D)

includes contacting a private employment agency.

 

 

118.

Johnny is 17 and works in his father's bubble gum store 10 hours a week after school. His father pays him no money but buys video games for him. However, Johnny earns a spot on the high school football team and no longer works in his father's store. How is Johnny categorized in the unemployment figures?

 

A)

Johnny is considered unemployed.

 

B)

Johnny is considered employed because he works hard at his football career.

 

C)

Johnny is not part of the labor force.

 

D)

Johnny is considered underemployed.

 

 

119.

Robert lost his job and now takes care of his children while his wife works. Robert has decided he likes his daddy duties. Robert would take a job similar to the one he lost if it was offered, but he is not actively seeking work. How is Robert categorized in the unemployment figures?

 

A)

Robert is unemployed.

 

B)

Robert is employed because he is providing a useful service.

 

C)

Robert is not part of the labor force.

 

D)

Robert is underemployed.

 

 

120.

Hannah is not at work because she broke her leg, but she will return once it heals. She is:

 

A)

unemployed.

 

B)

in the labor force.

 

C)

temporarily unemployed.

 

D)

part-time employed.

 

 

121.

If the labor force is 20 million and the total employed is 18 million, what is the unemployment rate?

 

A)

20%

 

B)

18%

 

C)

10%

 

D)

2%

 

 

122.

In the United States, the Census Bureau computes the unemployment rate from:

 

A)

data on applications for unemployment compensation.

 

B)

data reported  by firms when employees leave.

 

C)

the Current Population Survey.

 

D)

tax records.

 

 

123.

The household survey is a great source of discovering:

 

A)

entrepreneurial activity.

 

B)

manufacturing activity.

 

C)

inflationary trends.

 

D)

outsourcing trends.

 

 

124.

The household survey provides a detailed demographic picture of _____, and the payroll survey provides detailed information _____.

 

A)

consumer spending; about business spending

 

B)

consumer spending; by industry and region

 

C)

the labor market; about business spending

 

D)

the labor market; by industry and region

 

 

125.

Which is NOT a criticism of the official unemployment rate?

 

A)

It excludes marginally attached workers.

 

B)

It includes the underemployed.

 

C)

It does not include people who want to work but stopped searching out of frustration.

 

D)

It is not reported frequently enough to provide a good picture of the state of the economy.

 

 

126.

Scott, who has a Ph.D. in physics, waits on tables for a living. Scott is categorized as:

 

A)

unemployed.

 

B)

not part of the labor force.

 

C)

underemployed.

 

D)

discouraged.

 

 

127.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

 

A)

Discouraged workers have stopped actively seeking work.

 

B)

Discouraged workers are not classified as unemployed.

 

C)

Discouraged workers are considered underemployed.

 

D)

Discouraged workers are considered part of the leisure class, and not part of the labor force.

 

 

128.

Workers who want to work but have been frustrated by the inability to find work and have stopped searching are known as:

 

A)

the invisible unemployed.

 

B)

temporary workers.

 

C)

discouraged workers.

 

D)

the disgruntled unemployed.

 

 

129.

Other things equal, if a recession gets worse, the number of discouraged workers _____, and the number of those in the labor force _____.

 

A)

increases; decreases

 

B)

decreases; decreases

 

C)

increases; increases

 

D)

decreases; increases

 

 

130.

The biggest group missing from the reported unemployment rate is:

 

A)

discouraged workers.

 

B)

marginally attached workers.

 

C)

those working part time for economic reasons.

 

D)

those actively seeking work.

 

 

131.

(Table) According to the table, the number of people in the labor force is:

 

 

 

A)

30.

 

B)

100.

 

C)

140.

 

D)

210.

 

 

132.

(Table) According to the table, the unemployment rate is:

 

 

 

A)

14.29%.

 

B)

30.00%.

 

C)

20.00%.

 

D)

21.43%.

 

 

133.

Based on the unemployment data since 1985 presented in the chapter, which of the following is (are) true?

I.  The unemployment rate among blacks has tended to be about double the rate among whites.

II.  The unemployment rate for college graduates is consistently low.

III.  People who quit their jobs or are new entrants into the labor force constitute a small percentage of the unemployed.

 

A)

I only

 

B)

II only

 

C)

I and II only

 

D)

I, II and III only

 

 

134.

Which of the following statements describe(s) the unemployment rate?

I.  The unemployment rate includes those people who do not have a job and have ended their job search.

II.  The unemployment rate counts as employed those people who may be only working part-time.

III.  The unemployment rate is the percentage of the entire U.S. population that does not have a job but is searching for one.

 

A)

I only

 

B)

II only

 

C)

I and II only

 

D)

III only

 

 

135.

Assume that you read an article for class concerning the U.S. labor market that reports an increase in entrepreneurial activity.  To verify this information, you could refer to the:

 

A)

Weekly Jobs Report.

 

B)

Household Survey.

 

C)

Current Employment Statistics Survey.

 

D)

Payroll Survey.

 

 

136.

All of the following types of wages can cause unemployment EXCEPT:

 

A)

minimum wages.

 

B)

union wages.

 

C)

efficiency wages.

 

D)

equilibrium wages.

 

 

137.

Wages that are higher than equilibrium can lead to:

 

A)

unemployment.

 

B)

overemployment.

 

C)

a labor shortage.

 

D)

a downward wage-price spiral.

 

 

138.

Wages set high to discourage employee turnover are called _____ wages.

 

A)

turnover minimization

 

B)

efficiency

 

C)

productivity

 

D)

labor utilization

 

 

139.

_____ unemployment includes workers who voluntarily quit their jobs to search for better positions.

 

A)

Structural

 

B)

Frictional

 

C)

Seasonal

 

D)

Cyclical

 

 

140.

If a product becomes obsolete and the workers who produced that product will need additional training to find new jobs, then they are experiencing:

 

A)

frictional unemployment.

 

B)

cyclical unemployment.

 

C)

full unemployment.

 

D)

structural unemployment.

 

 

141.

Jennifer did not work during college. She just obtained a bachelor's degree in marketing, and she is now looking for a marketing job in the retail industry. Jennifer is considered:

 

A)

structurally unemployed.

 

B)

frictionally unemployed.

 

C)

cyclically unemployed.

 

D)

not in the labor force.

 

 

142.

Since the invention of automatic teller machines, many bank tellers have lost their jobs. This is an example of _____ unemployment.

 

A)

structural

 

B)

frictional

 

C)

cyclical

 

D)

statistical

 

 

143.

The mortgage crisis caused a lot of consumers to stop spending money. The decrease in spending led to a decrease in production. Which type of unemployment resulted?

 

A)

structural

 

B)

frictional

 

C)

cyclical

 

D)

statistical

 

 

144.

_____ unemployment is caused by changes in consumer demands or technology.

 

A)

Structural

 

B)

Frictional

 

C)

Seasonal

 

D)

Cyclical

 

 

145.

_____ unemployment is the result of changes in the business cycle.

 

A)

Structural

 

B)

Frictional

 

C)

Seasonal

 

D)

Cyclical

 

 

146.

Most economists agree that _____ unemployment is the area in which public policymakers can have their greatest impact.

 

A)

structural

 

B)

frictional

 

C)

seasonal

 

D)

cyclical

 

 

147.

The costs of cyclical unemployment can be minimized by:

 

A)

providing training for individuals who have lost their jobs and who want a new career.

 

B)

providing training for individuals who have a job.

 

C)

providing training for new entrants into the labor force.

 

D)

keeping the economy on a steady, low-inflationary growth path.

 

 

148.

The natural rate of unemployment:

 

A)

occurs when the unemployment rate is zero and everyone who is willing to work has a job.

 

B)

fluctuates with the business cycle.

 

C)

is associated with the economy's maximum sustainable output rate.

 

D)

All of the answers are correct.

 

 

149.

Unemployment caused by changes in consumer demographics and automation technology is known as _____ unemployment.

 

A)

frictional

 

B)

structural

 

C)

cyclical

 

D)

seasonal

 

 

150.

Which of the following statements regarding the types of unemployment is TRUE?

 

A)

Frictional unemployment is generally short-term, whereas structural unemployment is often long-term.

 

B)

Cyclical unemployment is due to expansions in the business cycle.

 

C)

Frictional unemployment is brought about by changes in technology.

 

D)

Structural unemployment is the result of normal labor turnover.

 

 

151.

Which of the following actions would reduce frictional unemployment?

 

A)

holding job fairs

 

B)

retraining workers to use computers

 

C)

taming the business cycle

 

D)

subsidizing obsolete technologies

 

 

152.

During the 1970s, when handheld calculators became popular and replaced slide rules in performing computations, workers in the slide rule industry lost their jobs. These workers' unemployment status is:

 

A)

frictional.

 

B)

cyclical.

 

C)

structural.

 

D)

natural.

 

 

153.

Cyclical unemployment occurs when:

 

A)

workers are fired.

 

B)

workers quit their jobs to raise a family.

 

C)

the economy slows down and workers are laid off.

 

D)

workers retire earlier than age 66.

 

 

154.

Unemployed workers who voluntarily quit their jobs to search for a better position are categorized as _____ unemployed.

 

A)

structurally

 

B)

cyclically

 

C)

frictionally

 

D)

seasonally

 

 

155.

Frictional unemployment occurs when job openings:

 

A)

exist and people are willing to take them, but the applicants do not have the necessary skill set.

 

B)

do not exist, although people are willing to work, so it makes no sense to try to bring the two together.

 

C)

exist, but people are not willing to take them, so it makes no sense to bring the two together.

 

D)

exist, and people are willing to take them, but it takes some time to bring the two together.

 

 

156.

U.S. steelworkers who have lost their jobs to workers receiving lower wages overseas are part of _____ unemployment.

 

A)

frictional

 

B)

cyclical

 

C)

seasonal

 

D)

structural

 

 

157.

The natural rate of employment:

 

A)

explains why some people are underemployed.

 

B)

explains why the unemployment rate is high.

 

C)

occurs when the actual inflation rate is lower than the consumer's inflationary expectations.

 

D)

is the rate at which the actual inflation rate is equal to people's inflationary expectations.

 

 

158.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

 

A)

The natural rate of unemployment is generally considered the equivalent of full employment.

 

B)

The natural rate of unemployment consists of only frictional and structural unemployment.

 

C)

The natural rate of unemployment is the level at which inflationary pressures in the economy are at their maximum.

 

D)

The natural rate of unemployment is when cyclical unemployment is zero.

 

 

159.

Full employment:

 

A)

is an unemployment rate of zero.

 

B)

consists of frictional and cyclical unemployment.

 

C)

consists of structural and cyclical unemployment.

 

D)

occurs if cyclical unemployment is zero.

 

 

160.

Suppose an economist breaks the unemployment rate into the following components: frictional (2%), structural (1%), and cyclical (4%). Based on these estimates, the natural rate of unemployment is:

 

A)

0%.

 

B)

3%.

 

C)

5%.

 

D)

7%.

 

 

161.

If actual unemployment is at its natural rate:

 

A)

inflation is very low.

 

B)

there is deflation.

 

C)

the unemployment rate is zero.

 

D)

interest rates are rising.

 

 

162.

When the economy is operating at the natural rate of unemployment:

 

A)

frictional unemployment is zero.

 

B)

structural unemployment is zero.

 

C)

cyclical unemployment is zero.

 

D)

the sum of frictional and structural unemployment is zero.

 

 

163.

When the economy is operating at full employment:

 

A)

the sum of frictional and cyclical unemployment is zero.

 

B)

the sum of cyclical and structural unemployment is zero.

 

C)

the sum of frictional and structural unemployment is zero.

 

D)

cyclical unemployment is zero.

 

 

164.

The nonaccelerating inflation rate of unemployment is the unemployment rate associated with ____ inflation and _____ unemployment.

 

A)

high; high

 

B)

high; low

 

C)

low; high

 

D)

low; low

 

 

165.

Which of the following pairs is NOT synonymous?

 

A)

nonaccelerating inflation rate of unemployment and full employment

 

B)

full employment and natural rate of unemployment

 

C)

cyclical unemployment and full employment

 

D)

natural rate of unemployment and nonaccelerating inflation rate of unemployment

 

 

166.

Which of the following is NOT a reason unemployment rates differ so much within the United States?

 

A)

tax differences between states

 

B)

cultural differences

 

C)

differences in preferences for living in a certain geographic area

 

D)

clustering of industries in certain geographic areas

 

 

167.

Which of the following would be considered frictional unemployment?

I.  Alisha has taken a job at a different company in order to accept a promotion.  She quit her current job but has one month off until she starts her new job.

II.  John has lost his job as a book binder as the demand for e-books has replaced demand for traditional books in the country.

III.  Melissa quit her full-time job to become a full-time student in order to pursue her Ph.D.

 

A)

I only

 

B)

II only

 

C)

I and II only

 

D)

III only

 

 

168.

With everything else held constant, if society increased the efficiency of matching people to jobs that need their skills, the natural rate of unemployment would likely:

 

A)

not change.

 

B)

increase.

 

C)

decrease.

 

D)

increase or decrease as we do not have enough information to determine the answer.

 

 

169.

Suppose the unemployment rate is 10% and an economist breaks the unemployment rate into the following components: frictional (3%) and structural (3%).  Based on these estimates, the cyclical inflation rate is:

 

A)

3%.

 

B)

4%.

 

C)

5%.

 

D)

6%.

 

 

170.

Which of the following statements is (are) true?

I.  If cyclical unemployment is 0%, then the unemployment rate equals the natural rate of unemployment.

II.  The unemployment rate consists of only frictional or structural unemployment.

III.  An unemployment rate of zero percent is generally considered the equivalent of full employment.

 

A)

I only

 

B)

II only

 

C)

II and III only

 

D)

I, II, and III

 

 

171.

With everything else held constant, if 5% of those considered to be frictionally unemployed found work while the number of people considered to be structurally unemployed increased by 5%, the natural rate of unemployment:

 

A)

increases by 10%.

 

B)

equals the unemployment rate.

 

C)

does not change.

 

D)

decreases by 10%.

 

 

172.

The consumer price index is a measure of the changes in the cost of production.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

173.

The price level is the absolute level of a price index, such as the consumer price index.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

174.

The chained consumer price index (CPI) for urban consumers does a better job in approximating the cost-of-living index than does the CPI.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

175.

The chained consumer price index (CPI) for urban consumers takes less time to estimate than does the CPI.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

176.

If the consumer price index (CPI) says that inflation equaled 10% last year, then the chained CPI for urban consumers is likely to say that inflation equaled 9.7% last year.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

177.

Your employer uses an escalator clause to determine your raise each year. In an inflationary environment, your employer is more likely than you are to want to use the chained CPI for urban consumers as the price index in this clause.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

178.

The consumer price index is a cost-of-goods measure, not a true cost-of-living measure.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

179.

Inflation hurts individuals with fixed interest rate mortgages.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

180.

During a deflationary period, prices will increase at a decreasing rate.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

181.

The consumer price index measures private goods as well as public goods.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

182.

The producer price index measures the average changes in the prices received by domestic producers for their output.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

183.

As a measure of inflation, the media gives more attention to the GDP deflator than the consumer price index.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

184.

The GDP deflator is the narrowest of our measures of inflation.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

185.

The GDP deflator is a measure of the average change in prices for all goods and services in the economy.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

186.

The consumer price index measures the average change in prices received by domestic producers for their output.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

187.

The nominal value of wages explains how much a consumer can pay for goods and services.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

188.

Disinflation is a decline in overall prices throughout the country.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

189.

The household survey focuses on the payrolls of businesses and government agencies.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

190.

The consumer price index is a cost-of-living index.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

191.

A cost-of-living index measures the amount of expenditures needed to maintain a certain standard of living, while a cost-of-goods index measures the amount of expenditures needed to purchase a given basket of goods.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

192.

The Bureau of Labor Standards collects a random sample of different goods and services every month in order to achieve statistical uniformity.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

193.

A consumer price index of 107 means that prices rose by 7% from the previous year.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

194.

A consumer price index of 115 means that prices rose by 15% from the base year.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

195.

Technological innovations in consumer products make it difficult to compare market baskets over time.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

196.

Core inflation is more stable than headline inflation because the two most volatile components are not included in core inflation.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

197.

The consumer price index measures the average change in prices paid by urban consumers and urban wage earners for a market basket of goods and services, covering roughly 87% of the population.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

198.

The consumer price index measures both private goods and services and public goods and services.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

199.

The general formula for an escalator clause adjustment is:  new = original × (original year index / current year index).

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

200.

A consumer price index change from 130 to 135 reflects a 3.85% inflation rate.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

201.

The formula for price change is: [(CPI in Current Year / CPI in Original Year) × 100] – 100 = Percent Change in Price.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

202.

Escalator clauses are important in times of rising inflation because they protect the real value of wages.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

203.

To convert a nominal change to a real change in dollar terms, the base year index must be set at 100.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

204.

If GDP grows 8% in one year and inflation, measured by the GDP deflator, grows by 6% over the same time period, then the real GDP has increased.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

205.

If nominal GDP is $12.5 trillion for a given year and the GDP deflator for that year is 111, then real GDP is approximately $11.261 trillion.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

206.

Use of the GDP deflator allows economists to estimate the real rate of growth of the economy.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

207.

The goal of deflating a GDP series is to see how real output has changed.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

208.

If nominal GDP and the GDP deflator both rise by 5%, then real GDP is unchanged.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

209.

If inflation is unanticipated, then income may be redistributed from creditors to debtors.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

210.

Inflation impacts debtors more than creditors.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

211.

The costs of inflation are greater when it is unanticipated.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

212.

An inflation rate of 400% per year would be categorized as hyperinflation.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

213.

Hyperinflation occurs when there is an excess of tax revenues over government spending.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

214.

People often resort to bartering for goods and services during periods of hyperinflation because money is virtually worthless.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

215.

Excessive government spending and printing new money are signs that the economy is in danger of hyperinflation.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

216.

A politician who calls a rate of inflation of 15% hyperinflation would be criticized by an economist for using inaccurate terminology.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

217.

When a high-quality counterfeit bill is circulated, the government ultimately loses.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

218.

In the 1960s, macroeconomists thought policymakers faced a menu of choices concerning the unemployment rate and the economic growth rate.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

219.

The misery index is the sum of the unemployment and inflation rates.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

220.

Cathy works part-time as a bookkeeper but would like to have a full-time position. She has been actively searching for months but so far has not found a job. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Cathy is unemployed.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

221.

Casey is a 16-year-old high school student who has no marketable skills. He has been browsing the want-ads in the local newspaper for months but finally got so discouraged that he quit looking for a job. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Casey is unemployed.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

222.

Kyle is working part-time as a bartender while he auditions for his dream job as a member of a ballet company. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Kyle is employed.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

223.

An economy has 100,000 residents. There are 46,000 people with full-time jobs, 14,000 with part-time jobs, and 4,000 unemployed people who are actively looking for work. The unemployment rate for this economy is 6%.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

224.

Unemployment rates differ little by education, age, or ethnic group.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

225.

Young females have a higher unemployment rate than young males.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

226.

New entrants into the labor force constitute the largest segment of the unemployed.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

227.

The Weekly Jobs Report contains an estimate of the number of persons filing for unemployment benefits for the first time.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

228.

The Weekly Jobs Report is used as a way to estimate trends in layoffs and hiring.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

229.

People are counted as unemployed if they only held temporary jobs during the survey week.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

230.

In the United States, people are not counted as employed if they have a job but are on maternity or paternity leave.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

231.

In the United States, people are counted as employed if they have a job but are having child-care problems.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

232.

People must be actively engaged in a job search to be considered unemployed.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

233.

The labor force consists of all adults in the United States.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

234.

Unemployment statistics in the United States are generally used to gauge the state of the economy.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

235.

In the United States, if an individual has stopped actively seeking work, he or she is considered to be unemployed.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

236.

For the purposes of calculating the unemployment rate, part-time workers are not counted as employed.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

237.

A person is considered to be unemployed if he or she has been either actively or passively looking for work.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

238.

Jasmine works in her family's boutique 16 hours a week and is considered an unpaid family member. Since she is not paid for her services, she is not in the labor force.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

239.

The unemployment rate does not explicitly include underemployed and discouraged workers.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

240.

Discouraged workers are counted in the labor force.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

241.

The establishment survey interviews households regarding their employment status.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

242.

The Census Bureau surveys households for employment status, while the Labor Department focuses on the payrolls of businesses and government agencies to determine employment totals.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

243.

The payroll survey has a larger sample than the household survey and so is considered a more accurate measure of employment.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

244.

Underemployed workers have the desire and ability to contribute significantly more to GDP but cannot do so in their present job.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

245.

The existence of discouraged workers tends to cause the official unemployment rate to understate the actual rate.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

246.

Frictional unemployment is primarily related to changes in consumer demand or technology.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

247.

Structural unemployment is usually associated with extended periods of unemployment.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

248.

Cyclical unemployment can be mitigated by keeping the economy on a steady, low-inflationary, solid growth path.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

249.

Dylan quits his job in Topeka, Kansas, and moves to Austin, Texas, to get involved in live music. He is unemployed for three months while he looks for a new job. Dylan is frictionally unemployed.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

250.

The goal of unemployment policy is to eliminate frictional unemployment.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

251.

Frictional unemployment refers primarily to workers between jobs.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

252.

Structural unemployment can be reduced by retraining workers for new industries.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

253.

The numeric level of the natural rate of unemployment is independent of the levels of the frictional and structural unemployment rates.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

254.

From a macroeconomic perspective, policymakers can be most effective with policies that target cyclical unemployment.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

255.

Full employment is defined as zero unemployment.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

256.

Full employment is considered to be the equivalent of the natural rate of unemployment.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

257.

Full employment, or the natural rate of unemployment, is determined by institutional factors such as the presence or absence of employment agencies and their effectiveness.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

258.

If the structural unemployment rate is 3%, the frictional unemployment rate is 2%, and the cyclical unemployment rate is 4%, then the natural rate of unemployment is 9%.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

259.

Structural and cyclical unemployment are unavoidable; therefore, the economy is in full employment when frictional unemployment is zero.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

260.

Full employment is typically defined as the level at which cyclical unemployment is zero or at the level associated with a low, nonaccelerating inflation rate.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

261.

When an economy has reached a zero unemployment rate, it is said to have reached full employment.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

262.

The nonaccelerating inflation rate of unemployment is a measure of the natural rate of inflation.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

263.

The nonaccelerating inflation rate of unemployment does not change over time.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

264.

The time it takes for the unemployment rate to return to the nonaccelerating inflation rate of unemployment will vary.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

265.

Jobless recoveries prolong unemployment above the nonaccelerating inflation rate of unemployment.

 

A)

True

 

B)

False

 

 

266.

What is inflation? Provide an example describing how inflation hurts an economy.

 

 

267.

Describe the methods used for measuring inflation.

 

 

268.

(Table) Briefly define the following terms: price level, inflation, disinflation, deflation, hyperinflation. The following table shows some data on the price level for three years.

 

 

Which term best describes the price change from year 1 to year 2? From year 2 to year 3? Why?

 

 

269.

What is the GDP deflator, and how is it measured?

 

 

270.

Why do economists believe that when the producer price index (PPI) rises, there is a good chance that the consumer price index will also rise?

 

 

271.

Suppose you have a contract specifying that your salary will be increased annually with inflation, as measured by the consumer price index (CPI). Suppose the CPI rose from 110 to 121 last year. By how much would your income go up? How does accelerating inflation affect the purchasing power of your money?

 

 

272.

What are escalator agreements and contracts?

 

 

273.

Why and how are series of data deflated to a real or constant dollar value?

 

 

274.

Who is hurt by inflation? Who benefits by inflation?

 

 

275.

What are the causes and consequences of hyperinflation?

 

 

276.

Use a supply-and-demand diagram to explain how efficiency wages can cause unemployment. What are some reasons that firms pay efficiency wages?

 

 

277.

Compare and contrast the following terms according to the Current Population Survey: employment, unemployment, underemployment, and the labor force.

 

 

278.

What are some problems with the unemployment statistics used in the United States?

 

 

279.

There are 630,700 residents in a certain metropolitan area. Of these 630,700 people, 214,400 residents are under 16 years of age, and 38,500 are institutionalized adults.  People in the last two categories are not considered to be in the labor force. Of the remaining 377,800 residents, 47,900 have given up searching for a job, 15,800 are unemployed and actively seeking work, and 62,820 work part-time. The rest work full time.

a.  Calculate the unemployment rate for this metropolitan area. Round the percentage to one decimal place.

b.  Is this economy similar to that of the United States? Is this unemployment rate a cause for concern? Support your answer.

 

 

280.

(Table) The following table shows a hypothetical labor force and employment data for two years.

 

 

What are the unemployment rates in both years? Is it possible for the unemployment rate to increase even if the number of employed workers rises? Why or why not?

 

 

281.

Describe the three types of unemployment.

 

 

282.

Define full employment and its relationship to the natural rate of unemployment.

 

 

283.

Explain the following statement: Even if an economy is healthy, it will never have an unemployment rate of zero.

 

 

 

 

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