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CAPM can trace its development from Portfolio Theory (i

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CAPM can trace its development from Portfolio Theory (i.e. the two fund separation theorem) which shows that the process of optimizing the return/risk ratio will ensure that every investor will invest in a portfolio of risk free asset and the risky market portfolio (also known as the two fund separation theorem). Explain and illustrate with a graph why no one will invest in other risky portfolios other than the market portfolio. Why would every tradable asset in the market be included in this market portfolio?