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For an individual who consumes two of the good X and Y, the Marshallian demand function for X is flatter than the Hicskian demand function for X if X is a normal good

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For an individual who consumes two of the good X and Y, the Marshallian demand function for X is flatter than the Hicskian demand function for X if X is a normal good.

Why is this false? Isn't it ALWAYS correct to say that for a normal good, Compensated demand curve is steeper than the Marshallian demand curve for a normal good.