Homework answers / question archive / Why is it that the teacher's rule for negation is considered correct, verbally impressive, and indicative of control over the environment, whereas the child's dialect is considered incorrect, unimpressive, and indicating lack of control? Does the difference have to do with the rule for negation itself?

Why is it that the teacher's rule for negation is considered correct, verbally impressive, and indicative of control over the environment, whereas the child's dialect is considered incorrect, unimpressive, and indicating lack of control? Does the difference have to do with the rule for negation itself?

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Why is it that the teacher's rule for negation is considered correct, verbally impressive, and indicative of control over the environment, whereas the child's dialect is considered incorrect, unimpressive, and indicating lack of control? Does the difference have to do with the rule for negation itself?